GATE AR 2020 QUESTION PAPER

Polls: 

This page discuss about the Question & Answer of GATE 2020. The answer provided here comes with a few explanations. If you need better explanations/ Essential Notes for Q&A of GATE 2020, you are recommended to buy the following eBook from our Instamojo store:

Question & Answer GATE 2020

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Q1. Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

1.    Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

2.   Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

3.    Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

4.    Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Estimated Answer: 2.    Decrease in repo rate will decrease…

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Q2. Hit by floods, the kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the country have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

1.    Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

2.    Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

3.    Officials feel that he food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

4.   Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

Estimated Answer: 1. Officials hope that…

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Q3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover: Uncover:: Associate:

1    Misassociate

2.   Dissociate

3.   Unassociate

4.   lnassociate

Estimated Answer: 2. Dissociate

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Q4. Despite a string of poor performances, the chances of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are

1    obvious

2.    uncertain

3.    bright

4.   slim

Estimated Answer: 3. bright

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Q5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n  odd natural numbers is

1    2n² +n

2.    n²-n

3.    2n² -n

4.   n² +n

Estimated Answer: 4. n² +n

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Q6. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred __ Mary Korn, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony __ the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s  official residence) in New Delhi.

1.    with, at

2.    on, in

3.   to, at

4.    on, at

Estimated Answer: 4. on, at

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Q7. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013 – 2018 is __ .

1    16: 17

2.    17: 16

3.   17: 15

4.   15 : 17

Estimated Answer: 1.     16: 17

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Q8. P. Q, R, S, T, U. V. and Ware seated around a circular table.

1.  S is seated opposite to W.

2.  U is seated at the second place to the right of R

3.   T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

4. V is a neighbour of S.

Which of the following must be true?

1    Q is a neighbour of R.

2.   P is not seated opposite to Q.

3.   R is the left neighbour of S.

4.   P is a neighbour of

Estimated Answer: 2.   P is not seated opposite to Q.

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Q9. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road I hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

1.   66.6

2.    88.2

3.    75.2

4.   116.5

Estimated Answer: 3.    75.2

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Q10. For a matrix M = [m_ij]; i,j = 1, 2, 3, 4, the diagonal elements are all zero and m_ij = –m_ij·  The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is __ .

1. 12
2. 6
3. 16
4. 0

Estimated Answer: 2. 6        It is a skew symmetric matrix

Solution:

Matrix =

Given, M₁₁ = M₂₂ = M₃₃ = M₄₄ = 0

And also, M_ij = – M_ij

Therefore, M =

So, the required minimum value of 6 entries are: M₁₂, M₁₃, M₁₄, M₂₃, M₂₃ & M₃₄

Tip: Please consider this question out of syllabus and relax!

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Q11. In the given figure, the area of the shaded portion is _

Estimated Answer: 8

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Q12. Shyarn-Rai temple of Bishnupur in West Bengal, is an example of

1.    Pancha-ratna type terracotta temple

2.   Stone carved Dravidian type temple

3.   Nava-ratna type terracotta temple

4.   Stone carved Nagara type temple

Estimated Answer: 1.    Pancha-ratna type terracotta temple

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Q13. In India, the Constitution (Seventy Fourth Amendment) Act. 1992, delegates powers to institutions forming the third tier of government, which are

1    Municipal Corporation, Municipality and Nagar Panchayat

2.    Development Authority, Improvement Trust and Panchayat

3.   Improvement Trust, Nagar Panchayat and Panchayat

4.   Development Authority, Municipal Corporation and Municipality

Estimated Answer: 1.    Municipal Corporation, Municipality and Nagar Panchayat

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Q14. A 1.2 m high window is located on a south facing wall. The solar azimuth angle is equal to the wall azimuth angle and the solar altitude angle is 60°. The minimum depth (in metres, rounded off to two decimal places) of overhang required to completely shade the window is _ (Assume that the overhang is located at the lintel level of the window)

Estimated Answer: 0.69

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Q15. For the same thickness of material layers, relative position of insulation in the wall

sections l and 2 shown below will have an impact on

1    Thermal Time Constant

2.   Thermal Resistivity

3.   Thermal Transmittance

4.   Thermal Conductivity

Estimated Answer: 1    Thermal Time Constant

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Q16.  “Tendon’ is primarily used

1    to prepare a tender document

2.   as a compression member

3.   to pre-stress concrete

3.   as roof sheathing

Estimated Answer: 3.   to pre-stress concrete

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Q17.   As on 2018, ‘Right to Property’ in India is a

1. Constitutional Right
2. Tertiary Right
3. Secondary Right
4. Fundamental Right

Estimated Answer: 1.   Constitutional Right

Source link 1: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Right-to-property-is-a-constitutional-right-Supreme-Court/articleshow/8019243.cms

Source link 2: https://www.thebetterindia.com/130232/constitutional-amendments-india-constitution/

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Q18.   The solar altitude angle on April 16 at 7:00 AM in Kochi is 16°. The same solar altitude angle will occur at the same time in the same year at the same location on

1. October 21
2. July 21
3. August 27
4. September 23

Estimated Answer: 3.     August 27

Explanation: March and Sept we have Equinox.June and December we have summer and winter solstice.It means during June Sun has direct Rays on tropic of cancer in Northern hemisphere. And in the same way during Dec it will be on tropic of Capricorn in Southern hemisphere.

So if Sun starts moving slowly towards tropic of cancer from March to June. It will go via Kochi (which is northern hemisphere) on April (one month after equinox) so then after reaching June Solstice it will retreat back to Sept equinox.. in this journey it will reach Kochi one month before Sept.

So it will Aug.

Given Kochi date was April 16. It means approx 26days after March 20 equinox.

So it will approx 26 days before Sept 23 equinox. Ans should be Aug 27

Courtesy: a GATE aspirant scoring 58 to 62 marks!

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Q19.  In the architectural style of ancient North Indian Temples, the term ‘Adhisthana’ refers to

1. Base Platform
2. Vestibule
3. Pinnacle
4. Transept

Estimated Answer: 1.     Base Platform

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Q20.  In a perspective drawing, the Picture Plane is in between the Object and the Observer. If the Observer comes closer straight towards the Picture Plane, without changing the distance between Object and Picture Plane, the perspective image will be

1. Will remain the same as previous image
2. Bigger than the previous image
3. Smaller than the previous image
4. Will become the mirror image of the previous

Estimated Answer: 3. Smaller than the previous image

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Q21.   As per URDPFl Guidelines 2015, Government of India, choose the correct hierarchy of plans from higher to lower order.

1. Perspective plan, Regional plan, Development plan, Zonal plan
2. Perspective plan, Development plan, Regional plan, Zonal plan
3. Regional plan, Perspective plan, Development plan, Zonal plan
4. Zonal plan, Development plan, Regional plan, Perspective plan

Estimated Answer: 1. Perspective plan, Regional plan, Development plan, Zonal plan

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Q22.   Who among the following architects has NOT won the Pritzker Architecture Prize till 2019?

1. B. V. Doshi
2. I. M. Pei
3. Moshe Safdie
4. Arata Isozaki

Estimated Answer: 3.      Moshe Safdie

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Q23.  The decay of sound in a large room is indicated in the following figure. The spike within the dashed zone denotes

1. Perfect sound diffusion
2. Echo
3. Flutter echo
4. Early reflection

Estimated Answer: 2.    Echo

Explanation:

Source: https://www.industrial-electronics.com/measurement-testing-com/architectual-acoustics-3-0.html

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Q24. Which one of the following is NOT a land use zone?

1. Heritage Zone
2. Industrial Zone
3. Agriculture Zone
4. Commercial Zone

Estimated Answer:  1.     Heritage Zone

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Q25. If Beam : Column : : Transom : X,

which of the following options can replace ‘X‘?

1. Sill
2. Ceiling
3. Mullion
4. Balustrade

Estimated Answer: 3.     Mullion

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Q26.   One of the sites added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2019 is

1. Walled City, Jaipur
2. Fatehpur Sikri
3. Chandigarh
4. Walled City, Ahmedabad

Estimated Answer:     Walled City, Jaipur

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Q27.  Four vertical lines having same thickness appear to be of the same height in perspective as shown in the figure. Which line actually has the maximum height?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1

Answer:  3.     2    Thinnest line has maximum height

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Q28.   Which of the following shapes can be used as an interlocking paver block without adding any other shape?

1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4

Estimated Answer: 2.      3

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Q29.   The correct chronological order of the given architectural movements is

1. Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Renaissance; Baroque
2. Romanesque; Roman; Renaissance; Gothic ; Baroque
3. Romanesque; Roman; Baroque; Gothic ; Renaissance
4. Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Baroque; Renaissance

Estimated Answer: 1. Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Renaissance; Baroque

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Q30.   The stone used in the construction of Kailasa temple at Ellora is

1. Marble
2. Sandstone
3. Limestone
4. Basalt

Estimated Answer: 4.    Basalt

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Q31.   In the given contour map, the angle at’ A· (in degrees. rounded off to two decimal

places) is _

Estimated Answer = 18.43

Solution: Angle at A = Tan^-1(10/30) = 18.43

Official GATE answer range: 18.2 to 18.5

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Q32.   Emergency preparedness for risk reduction does NOT include

1. rehabilitation
2. rescue
3. revision of code
4. relief distribution

Estimated Answer: 3. revision of code

Q33.    Average density of a highway is 25 vehicles per km. Average volume of the vehicles on the highway is 520 vehicles per hour. The mean speed (in km/hour, rounded off to one decimal place) is _

Estimated Answer: 20.8

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Q34.  ‘Formulation of GIS based master plan· is a sub-scheme of

1. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission
2. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
3. Smart Cities Mission
4. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission

Estimated Answer: 2. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

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Q35.   One hectare is equal to

1. 4048 m2
2. 4000 m2
3. 10000 m2
4. 4840 m2

Estimated Answer: 100m x 100m = 10000m2

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Q36.    Match the name of architects in Group I with the buildings designed by them in Group II

Group I                                               Group II

(P) Brinda Somaya                          (1) Museum of Tribal Heritage, Bhopal

(Q) Sheila Sai Prakash                       (2) St. Thomas Cathedral, Mumbai

(R) Revathy Karnath                         (3) Bait-ur-Rauf Mosque, Dhaka

(S) Marina Tabassum                       (4) Indian Naval Academy, Kerala

(5) Cholamandal Artists’ Village, Chennai

1. P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
2. P-2, Q-1 R-4 S-5
3. P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3
4. P-3, Q- 1, R-4, S-2

Estimated Answer: 3.     P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Source 1: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brinda_Somaya

Source 2: http://www.mptourism.com/blog/Bhopal-tribal-museum.html

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Q37.   Match the plant forms in Group I with the botanical names in Group II. as per ‘A Handbook of Landscape’, CPWD 2013, Government of India

Group I                                                    Group II

(P) Columnar                                         (1) Pinus roxburghii

(Q) Globular                                         (2) lpomoea grandiflora

(R) Weeping                                         (3) Juniperus chinensis

(S) Pyramidal                                       (4) Salix babylonica

(5) Mimusops elengi

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

P- 1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

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Q38.  A square based regular pyramid has all sides equal to 10 units. Its height (in the same units, rounded off to Mo decimal places) is _

Estimated Answer = 7.07

Official GATE answer range; 7.00 to 7.10

Solution: All sides of the pyramid in pink color is of 10 units. And the height of the pyramid is BC. Consider the triangle ACD and find the value of AC by Pythagoras theorem. In the similar way, consider the triangle ABC and find the value of BC using Pythagoras theorem.

Consider ∆ ACD,

AC² + CD² = AD²

Or, x² + x² = 10²

Or, 2x² = 100

Or, x² = 50

Now, Consider ∆ ABC,

AC² + CB² = AB²

Or, x² + h² = 10²

Or, 50 + h² = 100

Or, h² = 50

Or h = 7.07 Answer

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Q39.  In a single phase alternate current circuit, an electric lamp is rated 100 watts. If 220 volts is impressed on it and the power factor is 0.85. the energy (in watt-hour, rounded off to one decimal place) delivered in an hour is _

Official GATE answer range: 116 to 117

Solution: There is no use of 220 volts!

100 watt lamp = It will consume 100 Joule per Second

So, in 1 hour (= 3600 seconds), it will consume 100 x 3600 Joule of energy

Or, simply we can write 100 x 3600 Joule = 100  x 3600 Watt-Seconds = 100 Watt-Hour

Power factor = Output efficiency

So, Effective energy delivered =  100 / 0.85  Watt-Hour = 117.65 Watt-Hour Answer

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Q40.  Assuming that the population growth trend given in the table will continue, the population (in persons) for the year 2031 will be _

Estimated Answer: 4,84,315

Solution: We can predict population only if there is some pattern.

Here, we need to find the pattern. Usually population grows in two patterns: Arithmetic progression or Geometric progression.

Arithmetic Progression: 5, 5+2, 7+2, 9+2 etc.

Geometric progression: 5, 5×1.3, 5×1.3×1.3 , 5×1.3×1.3×1.3 etc.

Population in 2021 = 286577 x 1.3

Population in 2031 = 286577 x 1.3 x 1.3 = 4,84,315 Answer

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Q41. Top floor of a 25 story building is using a flush valve system with a minimum fixture pressure of 1.0 kg/cm2, If static pressure increases by 0.3 kg/cm2 per metre length and friction loss is zero, then height of bottom of the water tank from the top fixture (in metres, rounded off to two decimal places) is _

Official GATE answer range: 3.30 to 3.40

Estimated Answer: 0.31 m

Solution: ∆P = P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>ρg∆h

( P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>ρ = density of water = 1000kg/m³ , g = gravity constant = 9.8m/s²

)

or, 0.3 kg/cm² = 1000 * 9.8 * P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>∆h

or, 3000 kg/m² = 1000 * 9.8 * P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>∆h

or, P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>∆h

= 0.31 Answer

Suggested reading: While deriving Bernoulli’s Theorem, we were said that the sum of KE, PE and Pressure Energy per unit volume remains constant at any two points.

P+ρgh+ρv22=Constant

“>

In this, the first term is Pressure Energy per unit Volume. What exactly is meant by Pressure Energy?

We know we can write:

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Q42.  Match the software tools in Group I with their primary applications in Group II

Group I                                                 Group II

(P) ETabs                                                 (1) Acoustic analysis

(Q) Carto                                                   (2) Structural analysis

(R) eQuest                                                 (3) Statistical analysis

(S) SPSS                                                   (4) Energy simulation

(5) Geo-spatial analysis

P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

eQUEST provides a sophisticated, yet easy-to-use building energy analysis tool. eQUEST was designed to allow the user to perform detailed analysis of today’s state-of-the-art building design technologies using sophisticated building energy use simulation techniques but without requiring extensive experience in the “art” of building performance modeling.

Source: https://energymodeling.net/sites/default/files/eQUEST_Software_Training_2_Day_Course.pdf

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Q43.   A parking area measuring 52 m x 4.67 m is approached through a driveway as shown in the given illustration. The parking is designed al an angle of 30° with the parking bay of2.5 m x 5m.

The number of cars that can be parked in the designated parking area considering no car overshoots the length of the parking area is _

Estimated Answer: 10

L=0.58+5N

52 = 0.58 + 5N

5N = 51.42

N = 10.28 = 10 cars Answer

Source: https://nptel.ac.in/content/storage2/courses/105101087/downloads/Lec-38.pdf

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Q44. Match the terminologies of Munsell colour wheel in Group I with their corresponding descriptions in Group II

 

Group I                                            Group II

(P) Hue                                       (1) Addition of black to the base colour

(Q) Chroma                               (2) Radial colour variation

(R) Value                                   (3) Addition of white to the base colour

(S) Tint                                      (4) Colour variation through angular difference

(5) Vertical colour variation

P-2, Q-4, R-5, S- l

P-4,  Q-2,  R-5, S-3

P-4,  Q-2, R-3 S- l

P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

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Q45. Match the Architects in Group I with their projects in Group II

Group I                                                Group II

(P) Victor Horta                                  (1) Farnsworth House

(Q) Gerrit Rietvelt                               (2) Robie House

(R) Mies van der Rohe                       (3) Tassel House

(S) Frank Lloyd Wright                     (4) Schroder House

(5) Vanna Vcntury House

P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Source 1: https://www.rietveldschroderhuis.nl/en/rietveld-schroder-house

Source 2: https://www.holland.com/global/tourism/destinations/utrecht/the-rietveld-schroder-house.htm

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Q46. A developer would like to select a residential plot of 3000 m² for group housing in a city. Different options with varying development controls are given. In every group housing plot, 15% of the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) over and above the maximum permissible FAR has to be utilized for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) units. The maximum built-up area (in m²) available from the options given below is ______

Estimated Answer: 10350 sqm

Solution: Please note that the given ‘Ground Coverage’ data is of no use.

Area 4 has maximum permissible FAR = 3

So, The builtup area = site area x FAR = 3000 x 3 = 9000 sqm (this is without EWS)

So, builtup area incluing EWS = 115% of 9000 = 1.15 x 9000 = 10350 sqm Answer

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Q47.  Match the graphical representations in Group I with corresponding elements in  Group II

Group I

Group II

1. Pathway

2. Node

3. District

4. Edge

5. Landmark

Estimated Answer: P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

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Q48. Based on the psychrometric chart given below, match the vector in Group I with the respective process in Group II

Group I                              Group II

(P) V1                          (1) Heating and humidification

(Q) V2                         (2) Cooling and humidification

(R) V3                          (3) Heating and dehumidification

(S) V4                           (4) Sensible heating

(5) Humidification

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Source: http://home.iitk.ac.in/~samkhan/ME340A/Lecture_16_Psychrometry_Part_2_OK.pdf

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Q49. Number of married couples in a household along with number of rooms (for a household) are given in the table. Assuming each married couple needs one separate room, the total number of additional rooms required for them is _

Estimated Answer: 5214

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Q50.  Match the structural system in Group I with their potential causes of failure in  Group II

Group I                                                Group II

(P) Flat Slab                                   (l) Thrust

(Q) Long Column                          (2) Flutter

(R) Arch                                        (3) Punching Shear

(S) Tensile Fabric                        (4) Buckling

(5) Moment

P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

P-2. Q-4, R-1, S-3

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2

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Q51.  Plan and section of an isolated foundation is given below. The volume of concrete up to Ground Level (GL) (in m³, rounded off to two decimal places) is _

Estimated Answer: 3.1 to 3.4

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Q52. The activity duration, early start, early finish, late start and late finish of the three activities ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are shown in the following figure. The independent float of activity ‘Q’ is

Estimated Answer: 1

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Q53. A population of 2500 persons requires a minimum area of 3000 m² for primary schools. For the population in four different sectors given in the table below, the Sector having maximum shortage of school area per person is _

Estimated Answer:  Sector 3

Solution:

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Q54. Match the structural form in Group I with their corresponding illustration in Group II

(P) Cylindrical shell

(Q) Dome

(R) Conoid

(S) Hyperbolic paraboloid

P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

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Q55. Match the names of tactile paving in Group I with their patterns in Group II

Group I                                    

(P) Lozenge

(Q) Offset blister

(R) Corduroy

(S) Directional

P-4, Q-2, R-3, S- l

P-3, Q-5, R-4, S- l

P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4

P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

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Q 56.  A basement wall resists lateral pressure exerted by soil and water. The soil pressure amounts to 4.5 kN/m2 for every metre of depth below Ground Level (GL). The sub-soil water level is 1.0 m below GL and hydrostatic pressure of water is 9.8 kN /m2 for every metre of depth below GL. The total lateral pressure (in kN/m2, rounded off to one decimal place) exerted on the wall 2 m below GL is _

Estimated Answer: 18.8

Solution: We have to calculate pressure at 2 m below the GL

Total lateral pressure = Soil Pressure of 2 m depth + Hydrostatic Pressure of 1 m depth = (4.5kN * 2) + (9.8 kN * 1) = 18.8 kN/m2

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Q57.  A room measures 5m x 10m x 3m (LxBxH). Consider the following conditions,

Total solar radiation incident on the roof surface= 800 W/m²

Outdoor air temperature= 40°C

Outside film coefficient of the roof surface= 18 W /m²

The outdoor mean radiant temperature is equal to outdoor air temperature

The minimum reduction required in solar absorptance of the roof (rounded off to two decimal places) to achieve a 20° reduction in sol-air temperature is _

Official GATE answer range: 0.43 to 0.47

Estimated Answer: Data seems incomplete or incorrect. There should be some value that would change per unit change in temperature! For example 18 W /m²K

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Q58. Match the brick masonry bond type in Group ( with the corresponding illustration in  Group II

Group I

(P) Rat Trap

(Q) English

(R) Flemish

(S) Stretcher

P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

P-4, Q- 1, R-2, S-5

P-2, Q- 1, R-4, S-5

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

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Q59.  Match the books in Group I with the corresponding authors in Group Tl

Group I                                                         Group II

(P) The Autobiography of an Idea                     (1) Christopher Charles Benninger

(Q) Letters to a Young Architect                       (2) Sunil Khilnani

(R) A Pattern Language                                      (3) Francis D. K. Ching

(S) Architecture: Forms, Space and Order      (4) Louis H. Sullivan

(5) Christopher Alexander

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4

P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

P-4. Q-2, R-1, S-3

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Q60. In the plot shown below, ‘S 1’ and ‘S2’ are two non-directional point sources, having a sound intensity level of 95 dB and 60 dB respectively at a distance of 1 m from each point source. Considering free field conditions, the effective sound intensity level at the receiver location ‘R’ (in dB. rounded off to two decimal places) is

Estimated Answer = 75.9 dB

Official GATE answer range: 75 to 79

Solution: For time being, suppose that there is no sound source at S2. Because there will be almost no impact of source S2 on S1 as there is a very big difference of 35 dB. For example of two source of 95 dB are added, the resultant will be 95 + 3 = 98dB. In the similar way, if two sources of 95 dB and 90dB are added, the resultant will be approx 96 dB only.

Calculation of sound source S1:

Let Intensity of sound at 1 m be I1 and at 9m be I2.

So, I1/I2 = 9²/1^{2 …………………………….. A}

As per question,

95dB = 10LogI1/I0  …………………. B

and,

x dB = 10LogI2/I0……………………. C

B – C,

95 – x = 10 (Log I1/I0 – Log I2/I0 )

95 – x = 10 (Log I1/I2 )

95 – x = 10 Log 81/1

95 -x = 19.1

x = 75.9 dB Answer

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Q61. Match the characteristics in Group I with the type of settlements in Group II  as given in URDPFI Guidelines 2015. Government of India

Group I

(P) Zones of transition from rural to urban land uses located between the outer limits of urban and regional centres and rural environment

(Q) Towns having potential for investment and development: identified on the basis of their inter­ aerial relationship with the regional nodal centre

(R) Settlements that are growing sub-nodal centres but located out of the direct functionally linked areas of the growth node I nodal centre in the region

(S) Located near or within reasonable distance, well connected by transportation route of the growth node or metropolitan city and dependent on growth node Largely for employment

Group II

(1) Counter-Magnets

(2) Satellite Towns

(3) Peri-Urban Areas

(4) Priority Towns

(5) Statutory Towns

P-3. Q-5, R-1, S-4

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

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Q62. Match the terms in Group I with the parameters in Group II

Group II                                                                               Group II

(P) Frontal Area Density                                                (1) Active Green Area

(Q) Sky View Factor                                                        (2) Urban Density in Third Dimension

(R) Drift Index                                                                 (3) Built Density in Two Dimension

(S) Biotope Factor                                                           (4) Lateral Stiffness

(5) Cross Sectional Property of Urban Canyon

P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Biotope is defined as a geographical region in which the biological environment is uniform, and the flora and fauna distribution is also uniform. The term is closely related to another term “habitat,” but the two have distinct characteristics. The word “biotope” is derived from two Greek words “bios” (meaning life) and “topos” (which means place). Ernst Haeckel, a renowned German zoologist, is credited with introducing the concept in his “General Morphology” book.

Source: https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/what-is-a-biotope.html

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Q63.  Match the images of gardens in Group I with their names in Group II

Group l

Group ll

(1) Central Park, New York

(2) Versailles, Paris

(3) Nishat Bagh, Srinagar

(4) Katsura Imperial Garden, Kyoto

P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-3 Q-2 R-4 S-5

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Q64. In a residential complex, the central play area is to be converted as a detention pond for storm water management. For a 24 hour rainfall event of 100 mm, 100% storm water of central play area and 70% storm water run-off from rest of the complex is to be held at the detention pond. Area distribution in the residential complex is given in the table.

The required depth of the detention pond (in mm) is _

Estimated Answer: 760mm

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Q65. A simply supported RCC beam of cross section 0.4 m x 0.6 m covers a span of 8 m. It is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 30 kN/m. If the unit weight of concrete is 24 kN/m3, the tensile stress (in N/mm2, rounded off to two decimal  places) at the bottom of the beam at mid-span is _

Estimated Answer:  11.92 N/mm²

Official GATE answer range: 11.80 to 12.00

Solution: First we will calculate total UDL (Uniformly Distributed Load)

Volume of RCC beam = 0.4m x 0.6m x 8m

Load due to self weight of RCC beam = 24kN/m³ x (0.4m x 0.6m x 8m)

UDL due to self weight of RCC beam = Load due to self weight / Length = [24kN/m³ x (0.4m x 0.6m x 8m)] / 8m = 5.76 kN/m

So, Total UDL = Subjected UDL + Self weight UDL = 30kN/m + 5.76kN/m = 35.76kN/m

Maximum Moment = WL²/8 = [35.76kN/m * (8m)² ]/8 = 286kN/m

Tensile Stress = My/I where, M = Bending moment, y = distance from mid point (CG), I = moment of inertia

We have, M = 286kN / m,   y = 0.3 meter,  I = bd³/12 = 0.4m * (0.6m)³ / 12 = 0.0072 m⁴

Tensile Stress = My/I = [(286kN/m) * (0.3m)] / 0.0072 m⁴ = 11916.67 kN/m² = 11.92N/mm²

x End of the question paper x

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