Hearty congratulations to all performers of GATE AR 2018. Those who could not take out their best need not to be discouraged. Try for Grants/Endowments/Scholarships in foreign universities. Few we have listed on our ‘Scholarship’ tab.


Poll results:

Was GATE AR 2018 easier than the previous year GATE 2017?

  • Yes (60%, 153 Votes)
  • No (40%, 101 Votes)

Total Voters: 254

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What do you think the expected cut-off would be?

  • 36 to 40 (45%, 103 Votes)
  • 30 to 35 (25%, 57 Votes)
  • 42 to 45 (19%, 43 Votes)
  • 41 to 42 (12%, 28 Votes)

Total Voters: 231

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How many silly mistakes/blunder you made while answering?

  • More than 3 questions (56%, 132 Votes)
  • 3 questions (22%, 52 Votes)
  • 2 questions (15%, 36 Votes)
  • 1 question (4%, 9 Votes)
  • None (2%, 5 Votes)

Total Voters: 234

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How many questions were asked directly from last 3 years of question paper?

  • None (47%, 95 Votes)
  • 3 to 5 questions (19%, 39 Votes)
  • 2 questions (14%, 29 Votes)
  • 1 question (12%, 24 Votes)
  • More than 5 questions (8%, 16 Votes)

Total Voters: 203

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The level of General Aptitude (GA) was?

  • Easy (Low time consuming) (35%, 75 Votes)
  • It was tuff. (32%, 69 Votes)
  • Very easy (easier than last 3 years) (16%, 35 Votes)
  • Can't say. (16%, 34 Votes)

Total Voters: 213

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What about numerical questions?

  • It was scoring and mostly formula based. (54%, 107 Votes)
  • It was tuff and time consuming. (46%, 92 Votes)

Total Voters: 199

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How many questions would you go for review/challenge?

  • none (43%, 67 Votes)
  • more than 2 questions (27%, 42 Votes)
  • 2 questions (18%, 28 Votes)
  • 1 question (12%, 19 Votes)

Total Voters: 156

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What about this site (gatearchitecture.com)?

  • It is good. (49%, 86 Votes)
  • It is awesome. (34%, 59 Votes)
  • Not sure but it needs a lot of improvement. (15%, 27 Votes)
  • Misleading. Will never recommend. (2%, 4 Votes)

Total Voters: 176

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If you have more to say about GATE experience, write in the comment box or email and we will publish it here.

Prasant says: This time paper was easy but the numericals were difficult. There was no pattern followed for the numericals. Even the obvious topics of numericals were not there.

Raunak says: Question was easy but some numerical were difficult…Overall easy paper..but pattern were not followed…

Rohit says: I Am still confused, half the answers i gave was correct , but after seeing this comments am in a dilemma of even cutt off . I think paper was easy but tricky to make students confuse in the question itself . Half of the students are interested in knowing the answers but i think its more about questions to understand. The whole point is to understand students concerned about the diverse design program in working as well as creative.

Mas says: Who the hell says that paper was easy , it was just like the previous year papers , the only fact is that most of the questions were tempting and made us feel like we know about their answers but reality was somewhat different . A decent paper I must say.

AK says: The paper wasn’t easy by any means. I guess everyone’ been just saying that it was easy. At the max, the cut off may increase by 2-3 marks from the previous year cut off, definitely not more than that.


Following are questions asked in the exam: Questions are provided by the aspirants for the aspirants. Keep visiting for updates and answer with solution.


Q1.

Solution:  Area of triangle = 1/2 (Base*Height) = 1/2 (a*h) = 1/2 (a*a sin60°) = 1/2 (a2√3/2) =  √3 (given)

So, perimeter of triangle = 3*a = 3*2 = 6 Answer

(courtesy: Pulkit Sudan)


Q2. 

Answer: (A)

Stairs: A set of steps.

Stares: A long fixed or vacant look.


Q3.

Answer: (C)


Q4.

Answer: (D)

Volume of cuboid = l*b*h = 10*8*6 = 480

Volume of cube = l3= 83= 512

Volume of cylinder = (perimeter)*(height) = 2πr*h = 2π7*7 = 615

Volume of sphere = 4/3* πr3 = 1432                               

(courtesy: Pulkit Sudan)


Q5.

Answer: (C) 60


Q6.

Answer: (C) 7


Q7.

Answer: (A) 72


8.

Answer: (B)


9.


10.

Answer: (A)


11. Assuming other variable remaining constant, the “Tropical Summer Index”

A. Increases with increase in air velocity

B. Decrease with increase in WBT (Wet Bulb Temperature)

C. Decrease with increase in globe temperature

D. Increase with increase in vapor pressure

Answer: (C) Yet to be verified!

Reference: http://www.ijirst.org/articles/IJIRSTV3I11086.pdf

Tropical summer index (TSI) is defined as the temperature of calm air, at 50% relative humidity which imparts the same thermal sensation as the given environment.

12. Concentric circles in a solar chart represent

A. Azimuth angle

B. Altitude angle

C. Horizontal shadow angle

D. Vertical shadow angle

Answer: (B)

(Source: https://www.harvestingrainwater.com/sun-shade-harvesting/sun-path-diagrams/)


13. ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of

A. Road intersection

B. Fenestration

C. Open kitchen

D. Auditorium

Answer: (A)


14. World Trade Center (WTC) in 2001collapsed due to

A. Wind load failure

B. Foundation failure

C. Thermal performance failure of reinforced steel in RCC

D. Thermal performance failure of structure steel.

Answer (C) Yet to be verified.


15.

(courtesy: Gautham)


16. Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minaret’ is in

A. Ajmer      B. Allahabad      C. Ahmadabad      D. Amritsar

Answer (C)


17. A room of size 3m x 3m x 3m has reverberation time of 0.8 sec. The total absorption in the room is ________ sabin.


18. ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of

A. Smart city mission

B. Digital India mission

C. Swachh Bharat mission

D. Atal Innovation Mission


19. According to UN, component of ‘Inclusive growth’ is

A. Economic well-being

B. Physical infrastructure

C. Education

D. Life expectancy


20. Unit of Damp Proof Course (DPC) is

A. sqm        B. m        C. cum      D. kg


21. LRTS stands for

A. Light Rail Transit System

B. Liner Rail Transit System

C. Light Rail Transportation System

D. Liner Rail Transportation System


22. Strength of M-25 is

A. 25 kg/sqm         B. 25N/sqmm      C. 250N/sqm       D. 25N/sqm


23. In color wheel, Red and Blue color are

A. Tertiary    B. Complementary C. Secondary  D. Primary


24. Hall of Nations was designed by

A.Charles Correa

B. Raj Rewal

C. Joseph Allen Stein

D. A P Kanvinde


25. In CPM for time scheduling, ‘Forward Path Calculation’ is carried out for determining

A. LS and EF

B. ES and EF

C. LS and LF

D. ES and LF


26. Bamboo is

A. Shrub

B. Timber

C. Evergreen tree

D. Perennial grass


27. As per NBC, minimum rurning radius (in m) required for fire tender movement is

A. 8      B. 8.5      C. 9      D. 9.5


28.


29. A 25 storey building has 5 lifts. Resulting waiting time is 35 sec and ‘returning time’ is 175 sec. The no. of lift required for reducing waiting time to 25 sec without increasing lift speed is ______________


30. ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

A. Land renewal

B. Land rejuvenation

C. Land reclamation

D. Land readjustion


31. As per URDPFI, perspective plan is prepared for the duration of

A. 1 to 10 years

B. 11 to 15 years

C. 20 to 30 years

D. 30 to 45 years


32. The Equipment that is used for hoisting building material is called

A. Goods lift

B. Capsule lift

C. Gantry crane

D. Tower crane


33. In a bird eye view of a cuboid, maximum vanishing point is

A. 1       B.2        C.3       D.6


34. Rock-cut style is seen in

A. Shyama Raya Temple, Bishnupur

B. Kailash Temple, Ellora

C. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

D. Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi


35. Required indoor illuminance is 350 lux. Outdoor sunlight level illuminance is 9000 lux, If daylight factor is 2.7, find the amount of additional artificial lighting required.

(courtesy: Gautham)


36. Which of the following is not used in BIM?
A. Adobe Illustrator
B. Bentley Microstation
C. Autodesk Revit
D. ArchiCAD                                                                     

(courtesy: Gautham)


37.


38.


39. 2 hectare plot with FAR 2. Ratio of residential to commercial is 3:2 and parking required for residential is 1 ecs per 100sqm, for commercial is 1.25ecs per sqm. Calculate total ECS. 

(courtesy: Pulkit Sudan & Jia)


40. A housing with 60 dwelling units and 5 residents per du uses 135lpcd. If 80% of need is met by recycled water, what is the daily requirement of water?

(courtesy: Rounak Jain & Pulkit Sudan)


41.

(courtesy: Gautham)


42. Match the options:

Shell structure – Bahai Temple, Delhi
Double dome – Cathedral Florence
Flying buttress – Notre Dame, Paris
Suspended floor – Olympic Stadium, Tokyo

(courtesy: Toseef & Gautham)


43. Match the options:

Xeriscaping-requiring little or no water
Drip line – outer most width of the tree
Turf with paver – solution for soil erosion and water permeability
Swale –

(courtesy: Gautham)


44.


45. Question related to Stair width, Refuge area and Occupant load


46. Power supply is 330w. What will be the current if voltage is 110v with power factor 0.8?    (Please cross check this question)

(Courtesy: Pooja Gangwar)


47. Dead load 18 tonne , live load 12 tonne , factor of safety 1.5 and load on column as 10 tonne/ sqm , area of footing in sqm________

(Courtesy:Mukul Anand Singh)


48. A builder develops 12 hectare site. Developmental cost is 300 million rs per hectare. Assuming the saleable area as 60% calculate the selling price in million per hectare so as to provide the builder a profit of 20%

(Courtesy: Pooja Gangwar)


49.


50.


51. The time duration of a project with optimistic time of 4 days, pessimistic time of 11 days and most likely time of 8 days is ____________


52. Two design options of a business building on a 10 hectare site are being compared for built up area. Floor to floor height of option A is 3.6m and that of option B is 4.5m. If maximum allowable building height is 45m with same ground coverage for both options, the additional built up area achievable in option A over option B is __________%


53. A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rain water collection tank. If the rain fall is 60mm/hr and the loss during water storage 20%, then the time taken to fill the tank completely is __________hrs.


54. Match city with planner:

P. Islamabad      Q. Tel Aviv       R. Bhubaneshwar          S. Brasilia

1. Patrick Geddes       2. C A Doxiadis      3. Lucio Costa      4. B V Doshi      5. Otto Königsberger


55. In India, for 1.0 cum of M20 grade concrete, the number of cement bag is required is __________


56. The negative bending moment at fixed end of a cantilever (5m span) of UDL 10kN/m and point load of 20kN is _______

(figure not available)


57. An isolated enclosure shown in the figure has inlet P and outlet Q of 25 sqm each, on the opposite walls. The outdoor wind speed is 5m/sec. If coefficient of effectiveness is 0.6, the rate of natural ventilation in the enclosure due to wind action is __________cum/hr

(figure not available)


58. Match built forms with descriptions

P. Agora           Q. Ziggurat           R. Mastaba         S. Synagogue

1. Custodial precinct

2. Place of Jewish worship

3. Building diminishing stage of masonry with buttressed wall

4. Market place

5. Tomb made of mud brick


59. Match Temple with Dynastic period

P. Brihadeshwara Temple     Q. Kailashnatha Temple

R. Bhitargaon Temple             S. Lad Khan Temple

1. Gupta      2. Chalukya      3. Lodhi      4. Chola      5. Pallava


60. A 5m x 5m x3m room has four 230mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration is 10 sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 deg Celsius. Air to air transmittance value for 230mm thick wall and 20mm thick aerated concrete block wall is 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqmdegCelsius respectively. If brick walls are replaced with aerated concrete block wall, then the change in the conductive heat flow through the wall is ___________W.

(Please confirm in the comment box if the temperature difference is 2 or 20 deg Celsius)

Thank you Gautham for correction.


61. The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90dB. Considering an atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10m distance from the source is ________dB.


62. Planning norms for schools.

Schools Population Land required per school
Elementary one  per 2500 0.4 hectare
Primary one per 5000 1.0 hectare
Secondary one per 12500 2.0 hectares

The land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 2 Lacks is ___________hectares.


63. Match building characteristics with seismic consequences.

P. Re-entrant corner                        Q. Floating column

R. Irregular storey Stiffness           S. Gap between adjacent buildings

1. Soft storey      2. Stress concentration       3. Load path discontinuity

4. Vertical asymmetry  5. Pounding


64. Match building material with property

P. Cement       Q. Steel       R. Wood      S. Glass

1. Charring    2. Brittle    3. Evaporation    4. Tensile strength    5. Setting time


65. Match urban conservation themes with respective descriptions.

P. Restoration    Q. Reconstruction     R. Reconstitution     S. Replication

1. Piece by piece re-assembly    2. Returning to previous stage    3. Physical addition    4. Re-creation of vanished elements    5. Re-production of an exact copy


 

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