Q2014

GATE question paper with answer [GATE 2014 architecture stream]

Note: Detail explanation & notes are described in paid references.

Duration: 180 minutes online exam                  Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS:

All questions  that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers  for multiple choice type questions (MCQ)  will result in  NEGATIVE  marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.


SET- 1

  1. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1    A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the social sciences.

 The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A)  understanding  (B) meaning  (C)  concentration  (D)  stability

Answer (A)


Q.2    Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following

sentence.

 One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A)  vice  (B) virtues  (C)  choices  (D)  strength

Answer to question no.2  is (B)


 Q.3    Rajan was not happy that Sajan  decided to do the project on his own. On observing his

unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

 Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?

(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.

(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.

(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.

(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Answer (D)


Q.4    If y = 5x2+ 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0

(B) has a slope of +1

(C) is parallel to the x-axis

(D) has a slope of −1

Answer (C)

y = 5x2+ 3

y’= 10x  (slope)

So, at x=0, y’=0

Let equation of tangent be y=mx+c   (m = slope y’ & c = y intercept)

at x = 0, y = 3, c=3

So, the equation of tangent y=(0)x + 3

y = 3 which is parallel to x-axis.


Q.5    A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes?

Answer (1300)

Total cost = 50000 + 800 x 100 = 130000 for 100 tonnes

So, the cost of production in Rs per tone is (130000/100) = 1300


  1. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6    Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK

(A) ALRVX  (B) EPVZB  (C)  ITZDF  (D)  OYEIK

Answer (D)

 

A L R V X
B M S W Z
C N T X A
D O U Y B
E P V Z C
F Q W A D
G R X B E
H S Y C F
I T Z D G
J U A E H
K V B F I
L W C G J
M X D H K

Q.7    Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2.  Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct?

Answer (B)


Q.8    The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees,  of  the  second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Answer (180)

Sum of angles of the quadrilateral = 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x = 360

So, x = 20

So,  The smallest angle of a triangle is = 2/3(3x) = 2/3(60) = 40

Also, The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle.

So, angles of the triangle are 40, 80, 60 (in degrees)

And, angles of the quadrilateral are 60, 80, 100, 120 (in degrees)

So, the sum, in degrees,  of  the  second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral = 120+60 = 180


Q.9    One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are  taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people  in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?

(A) 3.0  (B) 2.5  (C) 1.5   (D) 1.25      

Answer (D)

Let population in county X is 300 & 100 in Y.

So, 3 people out of 300 in country X is taller than 6ft & 2 out of 100  people in country Y.

So, overall 5 people in 400 are taller than 6ft.

So, % = (5/400)x100 = 1.25


Q.10    The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value)

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January

(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall

(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii) 

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) 

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer (B)


 SET- 2

  1. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1    Toothing is a construction technique used in

(A) Wood construction 

(B) Steel construction

(C)  Reinforced cement concrete construction 

(D) Brick masonry

Toothing a very important technique when it comes to further extending the existing wall.

Answer(D)


Q.2    ‘Skeleton and Skin’ concept in building design and construction evolved during the

(A)  Roman period  (B)  Renaissance period

(C)  Gothic period  (D)  Greek period

Answer (C)


Q.3    As per the IRC standards, the minimum width (in m) of a two lane urban carriageway without a raised kerb is 

(A)  6.0  (B)  6.5  (C)  7.0  (D)  8.0

Answer(C)

The India Roads Congress (IRC) is the oldest and most important representative technical body of highway engineers in India.


Q.4    Pritzker Architecture Prize 2013 has been awarded to

(A) Mario Botta  (B) Toyo Ito  (C)  Rem Koolhaas  (D)  Arata Isozaki

Answer(B)


Toyo Ito has been announced as the Pritzker laureate for 2013. Ito is the thirty-seventh recipient of the Pritzker Prize and its sixth Japanese recipient.

Q.5    Hip roof is formed by surfaces sloping in 

(A) One direction  (B) Two directions  (C)  Three directions  (D)  Four directions

Answer (D)


Q.6    Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum in Japan has been designed by

(A) Kenzo Tange  (B) Kisho Kurokawa  (C)  Tadao Ando  (D)  I M Pei

Answer (A)

A bit more bout the building: At 8:15 a.m., August 6, 1945, the worlds first atomic bomb was dropped on the city of Hiroshima. The fierce blast wind and heat rays completely or partially destroyed or burnt down 90% of the city’s 76,000 buildings. The Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum lies within the Peace Memorial Park close to the hypocenter of the bomb. The East Building shows a history of Hiroshima before and after the bombing, and the West Building exhibits articles left by the victims, a-bomb-exposed materials, and photographs. The primary objective and mission of the Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum are the same as those of the museum in the city of Hiroshima: the abolition of nuclear weapons and the realization of genuine and lasting world peace.


Q.7    In AutoCAD, the maximum number of points which can be snapped in a circle using OSNAP

command is

(A)  1  (B)  3  (C)  4  (D)  5

Answer (D)

1 centre + 4 quadrants


Q.8    Development authorities in India are established under the provision of 

(A) Municipal Act 

(B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act

(C)Town and Country Planning Act

(D) Land Acquisition Act

Answer (C)

Municipal Act:  73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

74th Constitutional Amendment Act:  Panchayat Act

Town and Country Planning Act:  Development authorities established Land Acquisition Act. The land acquisition act of 1894 was created with the purpose of facilitating acquisition by the government of privately held land for public purposes.

The new law— Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Actwas enacted as the archaic Act of 1894 suffered from various shortcomings including silence on the issue of resettlement and rehabilitation of those displaced by land acquisition.

Under the new legislation, compensation for the owners of the acquired land will be four times the market value in rural areas and twice in urban areas. It also stipulates that the land cannot be vacated until the entire compensation is awarded to the affected parties.

The law has the provision that the companies can lease the land instead of purchasing it. Besides, the private companies will have to provide for rehabilitation and resettlement if land acquired through private negotiations is more than 50 acres and 100 acres in urban and rural areas, respectively.


Q.9    In escalators, the angle of inclination with the horizontal plane should be in the range of

(A)  10°-20°  (B)  20°-30°  (C)  30°-35°  (D)  35°-45°

Answer (C)


Q.10    As per the Census of India 2011, ‘ Metropolitan Urban Agglomeration’ is a contiguous spread of several urban settlements where the minimum population size (in Lakh) is 

(A)  One  (B)  Five   (C)  Ten   (D)  Fifty

Answer(C)


Q.11    BEES is an acronym for 

(A) Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability

(B) Built Environment and Ecological Society

(C) Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability

(D) Built Environment and Engineering Services

Answer (A)

BEES is the acronym for Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability, a software tool developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). BEES combines a partial life
cycle assessment and life cycle cost for building and construction materials into one tool. Results are presented in terms of life cycle assessment impacts, costs, or a combination of both as it can be seen in the figure below. BEES strives to assist the architect, engineer, or purchaser choose a product that balances environmental and economic performance, thus finding cost-effective solutions for protecting the environment.


Q.12    In a single-stack system of plumbing 

(A) All the appliances and traps are fully ventilated

(B) Only WC branches are connected with anti-siphonage pipes

(C) Anti-siphonage  pipes are omitted

(D) Only the stack is vented above the branch connection at each floor level

Answer (C)


Q.13    The maximum bending moment  (kNm)  in  a  simply supported beam of 8 m  span  subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m (inclusive of its self-weight) over the entire span is

(A) 40  (B) 160  (C) 240   (D) 380

Answer (B)


Q.14    Criteria for background noise (in NC) in hospitals and apartments is

(A) 10 – 20  (B) 20 – 30   (C) 30 – 40   (D) 40 – 50

Answer (B)

Noise Criteria for Rooms

Noise criteria (NC) curves can be used to evaluate existing situations by measuring sound levels at the loudest locations in rooms (preferably at user ear height).

They can also be used to specify the steady, or continuous background noise levels needed to help achieve satisfactory sound isolation, provided levels are 4 to 5 dB below the NC curve at both the low and high frequencies.

Each NC curve is defined by its sound pressure level over eight octave-band center frequencies shown on the following chart.

The table below presents recommended NC ranges for various indoor facilities.

 

Concert halls, opera houses, broadcast, recording studios, large auditoriums, large churches and recital halls

Small auditoriums, theaters, music practice rooms, large meeting rooms, teleconference rooms, executive offices, small churches and courtrooms

Bedrooms, sleeping quarters, hospitals, apartments, hotels and motels

NC-20 to NC-30
Private offices, small conference rooms, classrooms and libraries  NC-30 to NC-35
Large offices, reception areas, retail shops cafeterias, restaurants and gymnasiums NC-35 to NC-40
Lobbies, drafting and engineering rooms secretarial areas and maintenance shops NC-40 to NC-45
Kitchens, laundry facilities and computer equipment rooms NC-45 to NC-55

Q.15    As per the National Building Code, the minimum width (in m) of a staircase flight in an educational building above 24 m height should be

(A) 1.0  (B) 1.5  (C) 2.0  (D) 2.5

Answer (C)

Q.16    Among the following, the one that is NOT a land assembly technique is

(A)  Land Use Zoning   (B)  Accommodation Reservation

(C)  Town Planning Scheme  (D)  Transfer of Development Right 

Answer (A)

TDR is a regulatory strategy that harnesses private market forces to accomplish two smart growth objectives. First, open space is permanently protected for water supply, agricultural, habitat, recreational, or other purposes via the transfer of some or all of the development that would otherwise have occurred in these sensitive places to more suitable locations. Second, other locations, such as city and town centers or vacant and underutilized properties, become more vibrant and successful as the development potential from the protected resource areas is transferred to them. In essence, development rights are “transferred” from one district (the “sending district”) to another (the “receiving district”). Communities using TDR are generally shifting development densities within the community to achieve both open space and economic goals without changing their overall development potential. While less common, TDR can also be used for preservation of historic resources.


Q.17    The Grand Gallery in Egyptian Architecture is provided only at

(A) Great Pyramid  (B) Temple   (C) Mastaba  (D) Bent Pyramid

Answer (A)


Q.18    In the Taipei 101 building, the steel sphere as TMD (Tuned Mass Damper) is suspended to reduce horizontal sway due to

(A) Settlement & Wind Load  (B) Wind & Geothermal Load

 (C) Seismic & Geothermal Load        (D) Seismic & Wind Load

Answer (D)

The Taipei 101, once the world’s tallest building, sits a paltry 600 feet from a fault line.To counteract the forces working against it, architects installed a $4 million, 730-ton tune massed damper, which is a big ball 18 feet in diameter, made of 41 steel plates, and suspended by strong cables 3 1/2-inches think. It’s said to cut down on the swaying of the building by almost 40%.


Q.19    ‘Finger Plan’ concept of urban planning was initially adopted in

(A)  Canberra  (B) Paris

(C)  Copenhagen  (D) Tokyo

Answer (C)

Copenhagen is famous for its urban planning concept which has pro-moted sustainable lifestyles and sustainable modes of mobility. The Finger Plan for Greater Copenhagen was introduced in 1947 when a group of town planners realized that Greater Copenhagen was beginning to spread uncontrollably.

Greater Copenhagen is a vast area consisting of 34 municipalities. The spreading of the area created difficulties for the public transport system, which was in danger of reaching its capacity. It was necessary to control the urban growth and develop a citywide network of railways and arterial roads. The idea of the plan was to concentrate the urban development of Greater Copenhagen in the urban “fingers” created around the railway network.

At the same time, the green wedges between the fingers would remain undeveloped. Greater Copenhagen resembles a hand where the city of Copenhagen covers the palm and five larger cities and their railway routes represent the fingers.

 

Here are some suggestions for how it could have worked:

  1. build the railways with earth embankments as environmental noise barriers – probably with space for an express roadway in the same corridor
  2. use the fingers as green infrastructure corridors for the urbanisation – growing the fingers as the urbanisation spreads
  3. also use the fingers as utility corridors for: cycleways, habitat space, recreation space, a city forest, urban water runoff management, urban agriculture etc
  4. extend ‘ribs’ of cycleway from rail stations into the urban areas between the green fingers
  5. consider building above the railways and roads at some future date, to accommodate shops, offices and other commercial uses

Q.20    The most important property of concrete in its fresh state is

(A)  Compressive  strength  (B) Tensile strength 

(C)  Elastic modulus  (D) Workability 

Answer (D)

Workability is one of the physical parameters of concrete which affects the strength and durability as well as the cost of labor and appearance of the finished product. Concrete is said to be workable when it is easily placed and compacted homogeneously i.e without bleeding or Segregation. Unworkable concrete needs more work or effort to be compacted in place, also honeycombs &/or pockets may also be visible in finished concrete.

Definition of Workability

The property of fresh concrete which is indicated by the amount of useful internal work required to fully compact the concrete without bleeding or segregation in the finished product.

Factors affecting workability:

  1. Water content in the concrete mix
  2. Amount of cement & its Properties
  3. Aggregate Grading (Size Distribution)
  4. Nature of Aggregate Particles (Shape, Surface Texture, Porosity etc.)
  5. Temperature of the concrete mix
  6. Humidity of the environment
  7. Mode of compaction
  8. Method of placement of concrete
  9. Method of transmission of concrete

Q.21    An element constructed at intervals along the length of a wall to stabilize it against overturning is

(A) Barrel Vault  (B) Pilaster   (C)  Squinch Arch  (D) Buttress

Answer (D)

A buttress is an architectural structure built against or projecting from a wall which serves to support or reinforce the wall.


Q.22    Landscape design of Shakti Sthal, the ‘Samadhi’ of  late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi, was done by architect 

(A) Ram Sharma  (B) Mohammad Shaheer

(C)  Ravindra Bhan  (D) Raj Rewal

Answer (C)


Q.23    Horizontally Wedge-shaped  Treads in stairways are termed as

(A) Stringers  (B) Winders  (C)  Scotia  (D) Newel

Answer (B)

Winder- a staircase step for changing direction.


Q.24    The sequence of development in a Site-and-Services scheme is

(A) Land – Service – House – Occupant  (B) Occupant – Land – House – Service

(C)  Occupant – Land – Service – House  (D) Land – Occupant – House – Service 

Answer (A)


Q.25    Which of the following is NOT a classical spatial theory of land use planning?

(A) Concentric Zone theory  (B) Multiple Nuclei Theory

(C)  Centripetal Theory  (D) Sector Theory

Answer (C)


  1. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

 Q.26    A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 2 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR is 2. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of 55, 35 and 25 sq.m respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the plot is  _______________

Answer (1200)

Plot area= 2hectare x 100 x 100 = 2 x 100 x 100 sq.m

Buildable area with 2 FAR = 2 x (2 x 100 x 100) sq.m

Total no of dwelling units = 1x + 2x + 3x = 6x

Area assigned for all MIG = (1x) X (55)sq. m

Area assigned for all LIG = (2x) X (35)sq. m

Area assigned for all EWS = (3x) X (25)sq. m

So,  [(1x) X (55)] + [(2x) X (35)] +[(2x) X (35)] = 2 x (2 x 100 x 100) sq.m

So, 200x = 40000

So, x =200

The maximum number of = 1x + 2x + 3x = 6x =1200


Q.27    Arrange the following in ascending order of width

  1. Collector Street
  2. Arterial Road
  3. Local Street
  4. Sub-Arterial Road

(A) P, Q, S, R  (B)  R, P, S, Q  (C)   Q, S, R, P  (D)  Q, S, P, R

Answer (B)


Q.28    Out of the following, the maximum points in the LEED (New construction) rating system can be earned through 

(A) Sustainable Sites  (B) Water Efficiency

(C) Materials and Resources  (D) Energy and Atmosphere

Answer (D)
The rating system consists of the following 6 major categories, and maximum points:

  • Sustainable Sites:                               14
  • Water Efficiency:                               05
  • Energy and Atmosphere:                    17
  • Materials and Resources:                     13
  • Indoor Environmental Quality:             15
  • LEED Innovation Credits:                   05

Q.29    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bond resistance in reinforced concrete?

(A)  Chemical adhesion  (B) Friction

(C)  Mechanical interlock  (D) Aggregate interlock 

Answer (D)


Q.30    A neighborhood has 250 units of 80 sq.m each and 200 units of 100 sq.m each.  If the mandatory parking requirement is one per 100 sq.m of built space  then,  the total area(sq.m)  required for parking considering 30 percent additional area for circulation is  ________________

Answer (7150)

Note: As per the National Building Code (NBC) one car parking area must not be less than 13.75 Sq. Mtr and one two wheeler parking area must not be less than 1.25 Sq. Mtr.

Total built space = 250×80 + 200×100 = 40000 sq.m

Required no. of car parking = 40000/100 = 400 cars

Area required for 400 cars = 400 x 13.75 =5500 sq.m

For 30% extra space for circulation = 30% of 5500 = 1650 sq.m

Total area = 7150 sq.m


Q.31    A brick wall 19 cm thick has a thermal conductivity 0.811 W/m °C. The outside and inside surface conductance of the wall are 16 W/m2 °C and 8 W/m2 °C respectively, then the U-value of the wall in W/m2 °C is   ____________

Answer (2.30)

Note: thickness divided by thermal conductivity = thermal resistance

1/ thermal resistance = conductance


 Q.32    Match the contemporary buildings in Group I with their architects in Group II

 Group I    Group II

  1. Vitra Design Museum, Basel  1.  Adrian Smith
  2. Turning Torso, Malmö   2.  Jean Nouvel
  3. Burj Khalifa, Dubai  3.  Herzog de Meuron
  4. Tate Modern, London  4.  Santiago Calatrava
  5. Frank O Gehry

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5  (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2  (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer (B)

Vitra Design Museum
The design museum houses temporary exhibitions on themes of furniture design, and Gehry’s building makes a suitable host for them – in keeping with the theme, but – once inside – supporting, not competing with, the exhibitions.

The geometry of the building does not feel contrived, or particularly noticeable, as people go around the exhibitions. From the outside it does feel both those things, but it is at home among the other architectural showpieces that make up the Vitra site.


 Q.33    From  the following cost components of a building construction project which is not a direct cost combination?

  1. Labour cost
  2. Equipment cost
  3. Material cost
  4. Establishment cost
  5. Supervision cost

(A) P and Q  (B) Q and R  (C) P and R  (D) S and T

Answer (D)


Q.34    A house located in Delhi has 111 m2 of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and 55 m2 of ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average rainfall is 611.8 mm, then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will be  ______________

Answer (62700)


Q.35    Match the elements in Group I with the structures in Group II

  Group I    Group II

  1. Harmika  1.   Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu
  2. Sixteen Vidyadevis   2.   Sun Temple, Modhera
  3. Lat pillar  3.   Stupa of Sanchi 
  4. Urushringa  4.   Lauriya, Nandangarh
  5. Great Kailash Temple, Ellora

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3  (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2  (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer (D)


Q.36    At a site, based on percolation test, the allowable rate of treated sewage application was determined as 65 L/m2/day. The effective depth (m) of a soak pit with a diameter of 2.5 m for the disposal of 1020 L/day of septic tank effluent is   ______________ 

Answer (1.98)


Q.37    Match the AutoCAD command in Group I with their functions in Group II

  Group I    Group II

  1. OOPS  1.   Creates solid lines
  2. RAY  2.   Restores an erased drawing
  3. TRACE  3.   Manages customized user interface elements
  4. CUI  4.   Creates  semi-infinite line
  5. Creates a five sided 3D solid with a sloped face

tapering along the X axis

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5  (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4  (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Answer (B)


Q.38    Match the bridges in Group I with their structure type in Group II

  Group I                                                               Group II                                             

  1. Harbour Bridge, Sydney                        1.  Simply Supported 
  2. Golden Gate Bridge, San Francisco        2.  Cable Stayed 
  3. Howrah Bridge, Kolkata                       3.  Arch 
  4. Millau Viaduct, Millau                           4.  Suspension 
  5. Cantilever 

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2  (B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5  (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Answer (A)


Q.39    The arithmetic average value of the sound absorption coefficient for a specific material and particular mounting condition for four frequencies is

(A) Transmission coefficient  (B) Noise reduction coefficient

(C) Absorption coefficient  (D) Reflection coefficient

Answer (B)


Q.40    A single span simply supported reinforced concrete beam (250 mm wide and 480 mm effective depth) is subjected to a concentrated load of 120 kN at its mid-span. Neglecting self-weight of the beam, the nominal shear stress (MPa) at the support section is  ______________

Answer (0.5)

Reaction at the end = 120/2 = 60kN

Shear stress = force/area = 60kN/0.25mx0.48m = 0.5 MPa

(1 MPa = 106Pa =106N/M2)


Q.41    The optimistic time, the pessimistic time and the most likely time of a job are 6, 13 and 8 days respectively. The variance for this job is   _______________

Answer (1.36)
Expected time  =  ( Optimistic  +  4 x Most likely  +  Pessimistic ) / 6

he variance is given by:[ ( Pessimistic  –  Optimistic ) / 6 ]2 =[( 13-6)/6]2 = 1.36


Q.42    A refuse  collection  system  consisting of two  chutes  is to be provided in a 20 storied residential building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute serving one flat on each floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are 880 g/person/day and 240 kg/m3 respectively. If the cleaning interval is two days, then the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom of each chute is _______________

Answer (733)

Total no. of person in the building = 2x5x20 = 200

No. person serving person chute = 200/2 = 100

Average quantity of refuse collected in 2 days in one chute = 2×0.88kgx100 = 176kg

So, volume of the chute = mass/density = 176/240 = 0.733m3 = 733L


Q.43    Match the features in Group I with their architectural periods in Group II

  Group I    Group II

  1. Caryatids  1.   Roman
  2. Hypocaust  2.   Gothic
  3. Pylons    3.   Greek
  4. Lofty Pinnacles  4.   Egyptian
  5. Romanesque

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2  (B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4  (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer (D)
Caryatids are female figures serving as supports. The most likely derivation of their name is from the young women of Sparta who danced every year in honour of Artemis Karyatis (‘Artemis of the Walnut Tree’). This is one of six caryatids that held up the roof of the temple on the Acropolis known as the Erechtheion. A caryatid is a sculpted female figure serving as an architectural support taking the place of a column or a pillar supporting an entablature on her head. The Greek term karyatides literally means “maidens of Karyai”, an ancient town of Peloponnese.

The hypocaust is one of the most ancient forms of an HVAC system.  Like many great innovations, it originated with the Romans over 2000 years ago.  A hypocaust is both a primary system and a secondary system, as it creates heat and distributes it as


Q.44    Match the following terminologies in Group I with their descriptions in Group II

  Group I    Group II

  1. Pruning   1.   Useful in reproducing plants that would not breed true if

propagated by seed

  1. Topiary  2.   A live bud from a desired plant inserted into a host plant
  2. Grafting   3.   Cutting of evergreen shrubs into abstract or geometric shapes
  3. Budding   4.  Trimming and cutting of lawns
  4. Selective cutting of plant branches for better growth

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2  (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2  (D) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

  Answer (D)


Q.45    In a dance hall the indoor and outdoor  temperatures are 28°C and 18°C respectively. There is an internal heat gain of 5 kW and the specific heat of air (on volume basis) is 1300 J/m3 °C, then the necessary cross sectional area (m2) of a duct with an air velocity of 2 m/s required for cooling by ventilation is  ____________

Answer (0.19)
5kW= 5kJoule of heat energy is generated in 1 sec.

Let, cross section area = A

So, V, the quantity of air passed in 1 sec.= 2A

Heat energy content in V amount of air = (amount of air)x(specific heat)x(temperature difference)

= (2A)x(1300)x(10) = 2600A

This heat energy must be compensated by 5k Joule as  heat gain.

So, 2600A=5000

ð  A= 0.19


Q.46    Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to

(A) Water – cement ratio  (B) Water – sand ratio

(C) Water – coarse aggregate ratio  (D) Water – plasticiser ratio

Answer (A)


 Q.47    Match the terms in Group I with their examples in Group II

  Group I    Group II

  1. Incentive zoning  1.  Boardwalk, Atlantic City
  2. Universal design  2.  Minneapolis, USA
  3. Promenading  3.  Broadway Theatre District, New York
  4. Skyway system  4.  Pruitt Igoe Housing, St. Louis, Missouri
  5. Curitiba, Brazil

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1  (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2  (D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Answer (D)


 Q.48    If yield stress of steel is 415 MPa, then strain in tensile reinforcement at the limit state of collapse shall be at least  _____________. For steel, the Young’s Modulus, E = 2 X 105 MPa.

Answer (0.0037)


 Q.49    Match the books in Group I with their authors in Group II

  Group I                                                                                 Group II

  1. Architecture Now!                                                         1.  Ian Mc Harg
  2. Intentions in Architecture                                             2.  Robert Venturi
  3. Design with Nature                                                        3.  Christopher Alexander
  4. Complexity & Contradictions in Architecture                 4.  Philip Jodidio
  5. Christian Norberg Schulz

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1  (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5  (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer (B)


 Q.50    Match the common names of the trees in Group I with their botanical names in Group II

  Group I                                                   Group II

  1. Gulmohar                                  1.  Dalbergia Sissoo
  2. Palash                                     2.  Ficus Benghalensis
  3. Indian Mahogany                   3.  Delonix Regia
  4. Banyan                                   4.  Toona Ciliata
  5. Butea Monosperma

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2  (B) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2  (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

    Answer (C)


 Q.51    A room of internal dimension 4m x 5m x 3.5m (LxBxH) has 20 cm thick walls and two doors of  size 1m x 2m. The required area of Damp Proof Course (sq.m) is  _____________

Answer (3.3)


 Q.52    A load of 30 kN is applied vertically downward at the free end of a cantilever of span 5 m.  If the elastic modulus of the cantilever is 30 GPa and the section has a width of 0.3 m and a depth of 0.6 m, then, the elastic deflection (in mm) is    ______________

Answer (7.71)

gigapascal (1 GPa ≡ 1,000,000,000 Pa)

The pascal (symbol: Pa) is a measure of force per unit area, defined as one newton per square metre. It is the SI derived unit of pressure, internal pressure, stress, Young’s modulus and tensile strength.

 

Moment of inertia for rectangular section I = bh3 ∕ 12 = (0.3m)x(0.6m)3/12 = 54×10-4m4

YA= FL3 ∕ 3EI

ð  YA = (30kN)x(5m)3/3x(30GPa)x(54×10-4m4)

ð  YA =7.71mm


Q.53    Associate the plans in Group I with the options in Group II

  Group I                                                          Group II

  1. City Development Plan                          1.   PMGSY
  2. Slum Free City Plan                               2.   JNNURM
  3. Transport Network Plan                       3.   RAY
  4. Disaster Management Plan                   4.   NDMA
  5. RSVY

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4  (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5  (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Answer (A)


Q.54    The capacity of a hall is 600 persons and its volume is 3000 cu.m. If an optimum reverberation time of 1.0 second is to be achieved then the required total absorption (m2sabine) is  _____________

Answer ( 480)


Q.55    A solid straight steel rod of diameter 100 mm is bent in single curvature into a circular arc by a moment of 50 kNm applied at its ends. If elastic modulus, E, for steel is 2 x 105 MPa,  the radius of curvature (mm) of the arc assuming π=3.14 is  _____________

Answer (19615)


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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