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General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 Verbosity : Brevity :: Insolence :___________
Choose the word that best fills the blank.
(A) Innocence (B) Respect (C) Solace (D) Wealth
Q.2 The product of the digits of a three-digit number is 70. The sum of the digits of this three-digit number is _____
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 16. (D) 18
Q.3 The four pieces of a puzzle are shown in the figure below.
Which one of the figures labelled as P, Q, R, and S can be constructed by using
each of the four pieces only once without overlaps?
| (A) | (B) | (C) | (D) |
Q.4 Consider two distinct positive real numbers 𝑚, 𝑛, with 𝑚 > 𝑛.
Let 𝑥 = 𝑛log10(𝑚) and 𝑦 = 𝑚log10(𝑛)
The relation between 𝑥 and 𝑦 is _______.
(A) 𝑥 > 𝑦 (B) 𝑥 < 𝑦 (C) 𝑥 = 𝑦 (D) 𝑥 = log10(𝑦)
Q.5 ‘If his latest movie had been a commercial success, the actor would have made enough money to sponsor his next movie.’
Based only on the above sentence, which one of the following statements is true?
(A) The actor will certainly sponsor his next movie
(B) His latest movie was a commercial success.
(C) The actor made enough money from his latest movie.
(D) His latest movie was not commercially successful.
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 ‘My friend and I parted __ the door __ the cabin that I had rented __ the night.’
Choose the option with the correct sequence of words to fill the blanks
(A) at; of; for (B) for; at; of (C) of; for; in (D) in; of; for
Q.7 Five integers are picked from 0 to 20, with possible repetitions, such that their mean is 12, median is 18, and they have a single mode of 20.
Ignoring permutations, the number of ways to pick these five integers is _____
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.8 Rishi and Swathi are students of Class 5. Pavan and Tanvi are students of Class 4. Rishi and Pavan are boys. Swathi and Tanvi are girls. The four students played a total of three games of chess. The games were played one after another. A player
who lost a game did not participate in any more games. It was observed that:
(i) the first game was the only game where two students of the same class played against each other,
(ii) the students of Class 5 won more games than the students of Class 4, and
(iii) the boys won two games and the girls won one game.
The student who did not lose any game is __________.
(A) Pavan (B) Rishi (C) Swathi (D) Tanvi
Q.9 , 𝑄, 𝑅, 𝑆, 𝑋, and 𝑌 are distinct single-digit whole numbers taking values from 0 to 9.
𝑃𝑄 is a two-digit number with 𝑄 being in the units place and 𝑃 in the tens place.
Similarly, 𝑅𝑆 is a two-digit number.
It is known that 𝑃𝑄 and 𝑅𝑆 are consecutive numbers and
(𝑃𝑄)2 + (𝑅𝑆)2 = 𝑋𝑌𝑃, with 𝑋𝑌𝑃 being a three-digit number.
The value of 𝑌 is __________
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Q.10 In the given figure, 𝑃, 𝑄, and 𝑅 are three points on a circle of radius 10 cm
with 𝑂 as its center, 𝑃𝑄 = 𝑅𝑄, and ∠𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 45°. The figure is representative.
The area of the shaded region 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑂 is ______________ cm2.
(A) 50 (B) 25√2(C) 50√2 (D) 100
PART A: Common FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Q.11 – Q.28 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The five elements of Ekistics as defined by C.A. Doxiadis are Nature, Man, Society,
_____________, and Networks.
(A) Shell (B) Livstock
(C) Wealth (D) Land
Q.12 An earthquake originates at _____________.
(A) Epicenter (B) Hypocenter (C) Gyrocenter (D) Ground Zero
Q.13 The figure below shows road accessibility on the X-axis and hierarchy of roads on the Y-axis. The line which represents their correct relationship is _____________.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Q.14 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum fire resistance of
service ducts and shafts is _____________ minutes.
(A) 45 (B) 60
(C) 120 (D) 240
Q.15 On a topographic map, increasing spacing between successive contour lines uphill represents a _____________ slope.
(A) concave (B) convex (C) uniform (D) waning
Q.16 As per the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), _____________ aims to end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.
(A) SDG 2
(B) SDG 3
(C) SDG 6
(D) SDG 11
Q.17 According to the Neighbourhood Unit concept proposed by Clarence A. Perry, the maximum radius for walking to the nearest elementary school is _____________ miles.
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) 1.5
Q.18 Which of the following is/are the correct order of processes in the water cycle?
(A) Evaporation – Condensation – Precipitation
(B) Precipitation – Infiltration – Interception
(C) Condensation – Percolation – Infiltration
(D) Infiltration – Percolation – Aquifer Recharge
Q.19 As per the Municipal Solid Waste Management Manual by the Central Public Health and Environmental Engineering Organisation (CPHEEO) published in 2016, which of the following is/are listed in the 3R principles?
(A) Recover (B) Recycle (C) Reduce (D) Repair
Q.20 Which of the following is/are vertical(s) in the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Urban 2.0 (PMAY- U 2.0)?
(A) In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR) (B) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) (C) Affordable Rental Housing (ARH) (D) Beneficiary-led Construction (BLC)
Q.21 Which of the following is/are mandatory requirement(s) of an area to be declared
as ODF++ under the Swachh Bharat Mission of Government of India?
(A) All households have piped water connection.
(B) All households have rainwater harvesting systems.
(C) All sludge and sewage are safely managed and treated, with no discharge into the open environment.
(D) All households have dry and wet waste segregation systems.
Q.22 In India, as per the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which of the following plans represent(s) tactile tile(s) for assisting mobility of visually impaired persons?
| (A) | (B) | (C) | (D) |
Q.23 Which of the following is/are Eco-system Service(s) offered by forests?
(A) Regulating
(B) Provisioning
(C) Cultural
(D) Geo-political
Q.24 The minimum number of masonry units of size 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm each, required to construct a solid dry wall of length 3 m, height 2 m, and thickness 0.20 m, is _____________ (in integer).
Answer range: 600 to 660
Q.25 A commercial property has a total floor space of 15,000 m2, consisting of 2/3rd office space and 1/3rd retail space. The parking standards considered in this property for office and retail spaces are 6 and 4.5 Equivalent Car Space (ECS) per 100 m2, respectively. The total number of ECS required for the retail space in this property is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 225
Q.26 For a computer lab, a set of furniture has just been purchased at the cost of Rs. 8,50,000. The useful life of this furniture is 8 years. If the annual depreciation rate is 15%, then the salvage value of this furniture (in Rs.) is _____________
(rounded off to the nearest integer).
Answer range: 231600 to 231700
Q.27 The geometric construction of a golden mean rectangle is shown in the figure below. It starts with a square ABCD of 1 cm side. Continuing the development of the golden mean rectangles, the derived length of IJ (in cm) is _____________
(rounded off to three decimal places).
Answer range: 2.600 to 2.650
Q.28 If a site of 1,00,000 m2 accommodates 500 dwelling units (DU), then the residential density (in DU/acre) is _____________ (rounded off to nearest integer).
Answer range: 18 to 22
Q.29 – Q.49 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.29 Match the following cities in Group–I with their corresponding sun path diagrams in Group–II.
| Group I | (P) New Delhi (Q) Singapore (R) Sydney (S) Helsinki | Options | |||||
| Group II | (A) P – 1, Q – 5, R – 3, S – 2
(B) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 1 (C) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2 (D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 5 |
||||||
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | |||
| Most repeated option: | |||||||
| Probability: | |||||||
Q.30 Match the following graphical representations in Group–I with their associated terms in Group–II.
| Group I | Options | |||||
| (A) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
(B) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 3, S – 2 (C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1 (D) P – 5, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4 |
||||||
| P | Q | R | S | |||
| Group II | 1. Progression 2. Alternation 3. Spatial Tension 4. Interlacing 5. Interlocking | |||||
| Most repeated option: | ||||||
| Probability: | ||||||
Q.31 Match the following city planning concepts in Group–I with their proponents in Group–II
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) City Beautiful
(Q) Conservative Surgery (R) Happy City (S) Garden City |
(1) Robert Owen
(2) Daniel Burnham (3) Patrick Geddes (4) Charles Montgomery (5) Ebenezer Howard |
(A) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 4
(B) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 5 (C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 5 (D) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.32 Match the following tree species in Group–I with the colour of their flowers in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Cassia fistula
(Q) Jacaranda mimosifolia (R) Erythrina indica (S) Plumeria alba |
(1) Scarlet red
(2) Orange (3) White (4) Violet blue (5) Bright yellow |
(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2
(B) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 (C) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3 (D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.33 Match the following Books in Group–I with their corresponding Authors in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options |
| (P) Silent Spring
(Q) Handbook of the Birds of India and Pakistan (R) Small is Beautiful (S) The Unquiet Woods |
(1) Rachel Carson
(2) Madhav Gadgil (3) Ramachandra Guha (4) Salim Ali and S. D. Ripley (5) E. F. Schumacher |
(A) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2
(B) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 3 (C) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 5 (D) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 3 |
| Most repeated option: | ||
| Probability: |
Q.34 Match the following terms in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options |
| (P) VAV
(Q) DEWAT (R) El-Nino (S) BRTS
|
(1) Continent-ocean heat balance system
(2) Public transportation system (3) Intelligent air conditioning system of building (4) Water supply monitoring system (5) Waste water treatment system
|
(A) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2
(B) P – 2, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 3 (C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 5 (D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 2 |
| Most repeated option: | ||
| Probability: |
Q.35 Match the following concepts proposed by Kevin Lynch in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options |
| (P) Legibility
(Q) Imageability (R) Structure (S) Identity
|
(1) Perception of a complex reality as an
interrelated but single identity (2) Recognition of an object in a cityscape as a separate entity that is distinct from other objects
(3) Quality in a physical object in a cityscape which gives it a high probability of evoking a strong image
(4) Apparent clarity of the cityscape
(5) Pattern relation of the object to the observer and to other objects in a cityscape
|
(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 2
(B) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3 (C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 2 (D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1 |
| Most repeated option: | ||
| Probability: |
Q.36 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S, T with respect to the
illustration of a suspension bridge as shown below?
(A) Q – Stay Cable, R – Pylon, T – Sag
(B) P – Anchorage, S – Pylon, T – Primary Suspended Cable
(C) Q – Stay Cable, R – Stiffening Deck, S – Pylon
(D) P – Stiffening Deck, R – Pylon, T – Primary Suspended Cable
Q.37 The figure below shows the generic sequence of spaces and direction of movement
of users to and from an operation theatre after entering from a common corridor.
The spaces are marked as P, Q, R, S. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Q – Pre-operative, R – Dirty utility, S – Dress change
(B) P – Dress change, Q – Pre-operative, R – Dirty utility
(C) P – Dirty utility, R – Dress change, S – Pre-operative
(D) P – Dress change, R – Dirty utility, S – Post-operative
Q.38 Identify from the following, the correct short command key(s) and their respective
application(s) in AutoCAD® software.
(A) AR: Creates multiple copies in rectangular, polar, or path pattern
(B) BRK: Breaks a block or polyline into individual objects
(C) CHA: Bevels the edges of two straight line segments
(D) SXL: Breaks a single object into parts
Q.39 Who among the following is/are the recipient(s) of the Pritzker Architecture Prize
till 2025?
(A) Liu Jiakun
(B) Santiago Calatrava
(C) B. V. Doshi
(D) Charles Correa
Q.40 Q.40 Which of the following relationships is/are correct with respect to disaster risk in a
geographical location?
(A) Risk = Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure × Capacity
(B) Hazard = Risk × Capacity × Exposure
(C) Risk = (Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure) / Capacity
(D) Exposure = (Hazard × Vulnerability) / Risk
Q.41 Q.41 Which of the following is/are listed within the responsibilities of Council of Architecture (CoA) as per the Architect’s Act 1972?
(A) Maintaining minimum standards of architectural education in India.
(B) Maintaining standards for professional conduct of registered architects.
(C) Maintaining minimum standards for master plan preparation.
(D) Regulating building material standards for construction projects in India.
Q.42 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S, T with respect to the
illustration of a section through a given city?
(A) R – Footpath, S – Promenade, T – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor
(B) P – Skywalk, R – Multi-level car parking, S – Promenade
(C) Q – Footpath, R – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor, T – Multi-level car parking
(D) P – Skywalk, Q – Footpath, T – Mass Rapid Transit Corridor
Q.43 A city’s population in 2025 is 1,75,000 and is expected to increase in the next three decades at a growth rate of 8.5% per decade. In 2055, the estimated per capita domestic water demand will be 175 litres per day. The total daily domestic water
demand for the city in 2055 (in million litres per day) will be _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Anser range: 36 to 40
Q.44 The section of a R.C.C. staircase flight is shown in the figure below. Each riser and tread of the staircase is 150 mm and 300 mm, respectively. The steps are supported by a 75 mm thick waist slab.
The width of the staircase is 1500 mm. The flight consists of 10 steps. Consider reinforcement to be 0.75% by volume of the total R.C.C. The density of steel is 7800kg/m3. The amount of reinforcement required to construct the staircase flight (in kg)
is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer: 38 to 44
Q.45 A rectangular open concrete drainage channel has base width of 3 m and flow depth
of 1.5 m. The channel bed slope is 0.001. If the Manning’s roughness coefficient of
concrete used in this channel is 0.018, then the average flow velocity of this channel
(in m/s) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer range: 1.3 to 1.6
Q.46 A construction project consists of 7 activities. These activities, their connecting
events, and the three PERT times (optimistic, likely, and pessimistic), in days, are listed in the table below. The project starts on 27th July 2026. Assuming no holidays for the entire duration of the project except 15th August 2026, the expected date of
completion of the project will be _____________ August 2026 (mention the date in integer).
Answer: 30
| Activity
|
Connecting Events
|
Three PERT Times
(in Days) |
| P | 1 → 2 | 4 – 6 – 8 |
| Q | 1 → 3 | 5 – 6 – 13 |
| R | 2 → 5 | 6 – 8 – 22 |
| S | 2 → 3 | 8 – 11 – 14 |
| T | 3 → 5 | 2 – 4 – 12 |
| U | 3 → 4 | 4 – 8 – 18 |
| V | 4 → 5 | 5 – 7 – 15 |
Q.47 A socio-economic survey of a city is planned with a sample size of 1250 persons having the same proportion of age and sex distribution of the city population, as give in the table below. The required number of representative female respondents of the age group 19 to 40 years, is _____________ (rounded off to nearest integer).
Answer: 305 to 307
| Age group (in years) | City Population Distribution (in %) | |
| Male | Female | |
| 0 to 6 | 2 | 1.5 |
| 7 to 18 | 8.5 | 6 |
| 19 to 25 | 14.5 | 13.5 |
| 26 to 40 | 14.5 | 11 |
| 41 to 50 | 12 | 8 |
| 51 to 60 | 2.5 | 2.5 |
| 60+ | 1.5 | 2 |
Q.48 An existing four storey building of identical floor plans was built by utilizing the maximum allowable F.A.R. and maximum ground coverage of 50% in a plot of 500 m2. Due to incentive zoning, the F.A.R. of the plot has been increased
to 2.75. The maximum floor area (in m2) that can now be added to the building is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 375
Q.49 The figure below represents the plan and elevation of a square based prism of base 4 cm × 4 cm and height 20 cm. The prism is standing on the horizontal plane (HP) with its faces making an angle of 45° with the vertical plane (VP). A cutting plane, perpendicular to VP, divides the prism as shown in the figure below. The surface area (in cm2) of the vertical faces of the prism below the cutting plane is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 144
PART B1: FOR Architecture CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.50 The circular opening at the top of a dome is termed as
(A) Oculus
(B) Lantern
(C) Rose window
(D) Clerestory
Q.51 Albedo is the ratio between
(A) Sensible Heat and Latent Heat
(B) Reflected Radiation and Insolation
(C) Absolute Humidity and Saturation Point Humidity
(D) Indoor Illumination and Outdoor Illumination
Q.52 Setting out of the foundation is a process executed
(A) after the foundation excavation
(B) after the foundation concreting
(C) before the foundation excavation
(D) before the placing of plinth beam reinforcement
Q.53 Which of the following statements about the elements of Islamic Architecture is/are correct?
(A) Mimar is a tower-like structure usually associated with mosques or other religious buildings.
(B) Mashrabiyya is a wooden grille or grate used to cover windows or balconies.
(C) Mulqaf is a wind-catcher.
(D) Minbar is a type of pulpit usually found in mosques from which prayers and speeches are given.
Q.54 Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to temporary structures during construction?
(A) Centering supports formwork for arches, domes, and slabs.
(B) Scaffolding provides working platforms for masons.
(C) Shoring helps in preventing dampness in buildings.
(D) Underpinning strengthens or deepens foundations.
Q.55 The outdoor and indoor temperature of a room are 18 °C and 22 °C, respectively. There is also an internal heat gain of 5 kW. Consider the volumetric heat capacity of air is 1300 J/m3 degC. Using the ventilation heat flow equation, the estimated rate of ventilation (in m3/s) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Assume no other heat gains or losses and no net heat storage in the space.
Answer range: 0.95 to 0.97
Q.56 column transmits a load of 225 kN to a square footing. The safe bearing capacity of the soil is 100 kN/m2. The minimum length (in m) of the side of this safe square footing is _____________ (rounded off to one decimal place).
Answer: 1.5
Q.50 – Q.56 Carry TWO marks each
Q.57 Match the following Architectural Styles in Group–I with their corresponding examples in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Baroque
(Q) Byzantine
(R) Art Deco
(S) Art Nouveau |
(1) Hagia Sophia, Istanbul
(2) Chrysler Building, New York
(3) Seagram Building, New York
(4) Palace of Versailles, Versailles Sagrada Familia, Barcelona
(5) Sagrada Familia, Barcelona |
(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 5
(B) P – 4, Q –1, R – 2, S – 5 (C) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 2, S – 1 (D) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 3 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.58 Match the names of the following historic palaces in Group–I with their corresponding locations in Group–II
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Ujjyanta
(Q) Umaid Bhawan
(R) Jehangir Mahal
(S) Hari Niwas |
(1) Orchha
(2) Jammu
(3) Jaipur
(4) Agartala
(5) Jodhpur |
(A) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4
(B) P – 3, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 2 (C) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1 (D) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.59 As per the National Building Code of India 2016, match the types of glass in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Reflective glass
(Q) Tempered fire-resistant glass
(R) Insulating glass units
(S) Wired glass |
(1) Prefab unit of glass having an
edge seal that binds the individual sheets together (2) Glass into which a wire mesh is embedded during production
(3) Rolled glass having a distinct pattern on one or both sides
(4) Glass with metallic coating reducing heat gain and glare and allowing optimum visible light transmission inside (5) Glass that breaks into granular fragments, with no large sharp edges |
(A) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2
(B) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3 (C) P – 4, Q – 5, R – 1, S – 2 (D) P – 1, Q – 5, R – 4, S – 3 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.60 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of steel construction?
(A) Weathered steel forms a rust-like layer when exposed to weathering.
(B) Intumescent paints on steel sections improve passive fire protection.
(C) For the same weight, steel I-beam has more flexure-bearing capacity in comparison
to Castellated steel beam.
(D) Outrigger systems provide additional torsional rigidity against lateral loads in tall
structures.
Q.61 The different parts of a parapet wall and terrace section are labelled as
P, Q, R, S, T. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) P – Coping, R – Lime terracing, S – Rainwater pipe
(B) Q – Drip course, S – Rainwater pipe, T – Roof slab
(C) P – Vent pipe, Q – Drip course, R – Roof slab
(D) P – Vent pipe, R – Rainwater pipe, T – Roof slab
Q.62 A building facade has 48 m2 of glazing area. The properties of glass used in the glazing are as follows:
U-value: 5.2 W/m2°C
Light to Solar Gain (LSG) Ratio: 1.5
Visual Light Transmittance (VLT): 0.6
The average solar radiation on the glazing is 400 W/m2. If the outdoor and indoor set point temperatures are 35 °C and 20 °C, respectively, then the total heat gain (in kW) through the glazing by conduction and radiation is _____________
(rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer range: 10 to 13
Q.63 An overhang beam ABC is loaded with uniformly distributed load (UDL) throughout its entire span as per the figure below. The intensity of UDL is 12 kN/m. The bending moment at an intermediate point P (between A and B) is found to be
zero. The length (in m) of the portion AP is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer range: 5.1 to 5.5
Q.64 A conference room of size 25 m × 12 m is illuminated by CFL having efficacy of 60 lumen/W. The lighting power density (LPD) of the room is 12 W/m2. If the utilization and maintenance factors are 0.8 and 0.5, respectively, then the estimated illumination level (in lux) of the conference room is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 288
Q.65 The built-up area of a shopping mall is 12,000 m2 and the percentage share of annual
energy consumption from various sources is shown in the table below. The estimated average monthly solar energy consumption of the building is 10 MW-hr. The Building Energy Index (BEI) of the shopping mall (in kW-hr/m2
/year) is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 115 to 125
| Energy source | Percentage share of annual energy
consumption |
| Electricity from grid
|
52 |
| Diesel for additional power
|
30 |
| LPG for food court
|
10 |
| Solar energy | 8 |
PART B2: FOR Planning CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 As per India’s National Transit Oriented Development (TOD) Policy, 2017, radius of the influence zone around transit stations for developing compact growth centers, is in the range of _____________ m.
(A) 300 to 400
(B) 500 to 800
(C) 600 to 800
(D) 400 to 600
Q.67 The data type used in Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is _____________.
(A) Raster
(B) Vector
(C) Tabular
(D) Rating
Q.68 The graph below shows cumulative population (in %) on the X-axis and cumulative income (in %) on the Y-axis. If A and B are areas as shown in the graph, then the Gini coefficient is measured as _____________.
A/(A+B)
- A/B
- A/(B-A)
- B/A
Q.69 In India, which of the following missions is/are part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), 2008?
(A) National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Eco-system
(B) National Urban Livelihoods Mission
(C) National Water Mission
(D) Swachh Bharat Mission
Q.70 Which of the following options is/are means of first and last mile connectivity with respect to urban transit systems?
(A) Park and Ride
(B) Intermediate Public Transport
(C) Public Bicycle Sharing
(D) Intercity High-speed Rail
Q.71 Based on Greenshield’s model, a speed-density relationship is developed on the data of a traffic stream. This relationship is represented as v = 75 − 0.03k, where v (in km/hr) is the mean speed at density k (in vehicle/km). The jam density
(in vehicle/km) of this traffic stream is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 2500
Q.72 In a particular year, the status of Consolidated Funds of India is shown in the table below. For the given data, the fiscal deficit of that year (Rupees in crores) is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 155833
| Consolidated Funds of India | |||
| Receipt
|
Amount
(Rupees in Crores)
|
Expenditure
|
Amount
(Rupees in Crores)
|
| Revenue
|
2,65,279
|
Revenue
|
3,75,582
|
| Non-debt capital receipt
|
3,646
|
Capital
|
31,295
|
| Recovery of loans and
advances
|
20,733
|
Disbursement of
loans and advances
|
38,614
|
| Public debt | 4,36,689 | Public debt
repayment |
3,21,725 |
Q.73 – Q.81 Carry TWO marks each
Q.73 Match the following zoning in Group–I with their characteristics in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Form based zoning
(Q) Euclidean zoning (R) Inclusionary zoning (S) Performance zoning |
(1) Strictly segregates different land uses
(2) Provides for urban poor or economically weaker sections in land use planning
(3) Regulates the development by assessing the impacts of land use (4) Encourages developers to build community amenities in lieu of surplus F.A.R.
(5) Creates a public realm by guiding the building envelope, considering the community’s unique characteristics |
(A) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
(B) P – 5, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 (C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 5 (D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 5 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.74 Match the following strategies in Group–I with their corresponding descriptions in Group–II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Transfer of Development Rights
(Q) Betterment Levy (R) Viability Gap Funding (S) Vacant Land Tax
|
(1) Financial support by the
Government for Public-PrivatePartnership projects
(2) Tax imposed on unused or underdeveloped plots
(3) Award of additional F.A.R. in different locations in exchange of land for public purpose
(4) One-time fee to recover investment for enhanced public infrastructure
(5) Fee for land use change from agriculture to non-agriculture |
(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 5
(B) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2 (C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 2 (D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2 |
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.75 Match the following Curves in Group-I with their corresponding uses in Group-II.
| Group I | Group II | Options | |
| (P) Perspective Plan
(Q) Regional Plan
(R) Development Plan
(S) Local Area Plan |
(1) To identify resources for development
and plan for settlements, prepared and regulated by District Planning Committee (2) To detail sub-city land use plan and integrate with urban infrastructure (3) To develop vision and provide policy framework for urban and regional development (4) To prepare special area plan for towns with special development needs
(5) To prepare plan for urban areas and peri-urban areas under the control of Metropolitan Planning Committee |
(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2
(B) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 5, S – 2 (C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4 (D) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 3
|
|
| Most repeated option: | |||
| Probability: | |||
Q.76 Which of the following is/are correct labelling of P, Q, R, S with respect to the urban
patterns shown below?
(A) P – Organic, R – Linear
(B) P – Organic, Q – Linear
(C) Q – Grid Iron, S – Radial
(D) Q – Organic, R – Radial
Q.77 Which of the following is/ are passive remote sensing technique(s)?
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Aerial photos
(D) Landsat images
Q.78 A capital investment of Rs. 60,000 has been made at present, expecting an annual return of Rs. 20,000 at the end of each year for a period of 5 years. If the annual discount rate is 5%, then the Net Present Value (in Rs.) is _____________ (rounded
off to the nearest integer).
Answer range: 16400 to 26700
Q.79 The demand function of a light rail transit system (LRTS) of a city is represented as Q = 43000 – 850P, where Q is the ridership/day and P is the fare/ride. If the existing fare of Rs. 30 per ride is reduced to Rs. 25 per ride, then the consequent increased ridership of the LRTS (in percentage) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer range: 24 to 25
Q.80 In a transport network, all the nodes (represented by A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) and their connecting links are shown in the figure below. The values mentioned alongside the links represent the travel time (in minutes) between nodes. Following
the shortest path, the minimum time required to commute from node A to node G (in minutes) is _____________ (in integer).
Answer: 29
- 81 A classified vehicle count was conducted in the midblock of a two-lane one-way collector road during peak hour (08:00 A.M. – 09:00 A.M.) on a weekday. The vehicle counts and corresponding passenger car unit (PCU) are shown in the table
below. If the maximum design capacity per lane of that road is 1300 PCU/hr, then the volume to capacity ratio of that road is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer range: 0.72 to 0.85
| Vehicle Type | Hourly Vehicle Count
(08:00 A.M. – 09:00 A.M.) |
PCU Value |
| Bus
|
52 | 2.50 |
| Truck
|
24 | 3.00 |
| Car
|
720 | 1.00 |
| Motorized Two-Wheeler
|
1050 | 0.50 |
| Auto Rickshaw
|
275 | 0.80 |
| E-Rickshaw
|
410 | 0.80 |
| Bicycle | 90 | 0.30 |
END OF QUESTION PAPER