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Modified GATE AR 2017 Mock Test
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Note: Questions asked in this online test (Modified GATE AR 2017) are inspired from original GATE AR 2017 Question Paper. For example:
GATE 2017 Question: Which of the following processes is NOT used for corrosion resistance of cast iron?
(A) Painting (B) Epoxy coating (C) Quenching (D) Galvanizing
Modified GATE 2017 Question: Galvanizing is one of the most widely used to methods for protecting metal from corrosion. It involves applying a thin coating of___________.
(A) Iron (B) Zinc (C) Copper (D) Lead
GATE 2017 Question: Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x, y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 2 and |y +2 | ≤ 3. Let S2 be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ – 2, y ≥ 1 and x ≤ 3. Let S be the union of S1 and S2. The area of S is
(A) 26 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) 34
Modified GATE 2017 Question: Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x, y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 3 and |y +2| ≤ 4. Let S2 be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ – 4, y ≥ 2 and x ≤ 4. Let S be the union of S1 and S2. The area of S is __________ .
(A) 26 (B) 54 (C) 84 (D) 66
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Question 1 of 65
1. Question
1 pointsMy pretty sister constantly misbehaves and is always causing ___________ (1 mark)
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Question 2 of 65
2. Question
1 pointsThe teacher__________ the concept by ________practical examples. (1 mark)
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Question 3 of 65
3. Question
2 pointsLet S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x, y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 3 and |y +2| ≤ 4. Let S2 be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ – 4, y ≥ 2 and x ≤ 4. Let S be the union of S1 and S2. The area of S is __________ (2 marks)
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Question 4 of 65
4. Question
2 pointsErosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plow in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmland were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation’s most critical natural resource problem. (2 marks)
As we understand from the reading, today, soil erosion in America _______.
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Question 5 of 65
5. Question
2 pointsFind a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the reciprocal of the number. (2 marks)
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Question 6 of 65
6. Question
2 pointsHarold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people’s bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation’s system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realised that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatised for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the “security bug” and took up freelance work. (2 marks)
The statement that ‘he later threw off the security bug’ means that
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Question 7 of 65
7. Question
1 pointsP, Q and R talk about S’s car collection. P states that S has at least 2 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one car. Only two of P, Q and R are right. The number of cars owned by S is _________. (1 mark)
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Question 8 of 65
8. Question
1 pointsIn a company with 100 employees. 45 earn Rs. 25,000 per month. 25 earn Rs. 32,300. 20 earn Rs. 40,000. 8 earn Rs. 60,000. and 2 earn Rs. 150.000 The median of the salaries is __________. (1 mark)
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Question 9 of 65
9. Question
2 pointsStudy the bar chart and answer the question based on it. (2 marks)
What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?Correct
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Question 10 of 65
10. Question
1 pointsThe unit used to indicate an individual’s perception of loudness is __________. (1 mark)
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Question 11 of 65
11. Question
1 pointsAn orbit that allows satellites to match earth’s rotation located above earth’s equator is called __________ . (1 mark)
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Question 12 of 65
12. Question
1 pointsA right-angled cone (with base radius 5 cm and height 5 cm) completely covers a ball of radius r placed on a table. Find the maximum value of r. (1 mark)
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Question 13 of 65
13. Question
2 pointsA circular plate inclined at an angle θ with horizontal plane generates an ellipse as top view with major axis and minor axis of 10 cm and 5 cm respectively. The value of θ in degrees is___________. (2 marks)
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Question 14 of 65
14. Question
1 pointsIn one litre of paint, volume of solid pigment and volume of non-volatile binder are 500 cc and 500 cc respectively. The Pigment Volume Concentration number of the paint is _______. (1 mark)
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Question 15 of 65
15. Question
1 pointsThe term is used as a measurement of the spatial concentration of populations. (1 mark)
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Question 16 of 65
16. Question
2 pointsFind the velocity of “Constricted end” if non-constricted end had velocity 3m/s and diameter of constricted end was half of that of the non constricted. (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical value.
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Question 17 of 65
17. Question
2 pointsOne acre of agricultural land has been given on a lease till perpetuity at an annual rent of Rs. 10,000 to be paid at the end of each year. Net Present Value of the land parcel in Rupees assuming a discount rate of 10% per annum is __________ . (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill with the numerical value. For example, if the answer is Rs. 50,000 then fill 50000
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Question 18 of 65
18. Question
2 pointsCalculate the volume of cement in cubic metre required for making 10 cubic metre of M25 grade Plain Cement Concrete work assuming the ratio of dry concrete mix to wet concrete mix as 1.52 (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical value. For example, if the answer is 1.58 then fill 1.5
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Question 19 of 65
19. Question
2 pointsA room measures 3 m (width) x 5 m (length) x 3 in (height). The outdoor temperature is 36 °C. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1300 J/cu.m.°C. The ventilation heat flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 26 °C with 3 air changes per hour is _______. (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical value with only three digits. For example if your answer is 378.8 then fill 378
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Question 20 of 65
20. Question
2 pointsA site has a unidirectional slope of 45° with horizontal along its longer side. The projected dimensions of the site on the horizontal plane measures 25 m x 40 m. Using cut and fill method the site has to be levelled parallel to the horizontal plane. The minimum amount of earth to be excavated in cubic metre is …………….. (2 marks)
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Question 21 of 65
21. Question
1 pointsFor a symmetrical two dimensional truss as shown in the given figure, vertical force in kN acting on the member 6 is ( 1 mark)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical value with one digit.
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Question 22 of 65
22. Question
2 pointsValue of bending moment in kN-m at point C for a beam as shown in the given figure is (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical value with three digits.
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Question 23 of 65
23. Question
1 pointsThe slenderness ratio is the ratio of (1 mark)
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Question 24 of 65
24. Question
2 pointsFee of contractor for a project has the following provisions (2 marks)
- Basic fee = 15% of actual cost of work incurred
- Bonus = 20% of savings from estimated cost of work
- Penalty = 20% of cost overrun
If the estimated cost of the project is Rs. 80,000, and the actual cost is Rs. 90,000, then the total fee of contractor in Rupees is (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the correct numerical values (five digits). For example, if your answer is Rs. 20,000 then fill 20000
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Question 25 of 65
25. Question
2 pointsA drainage basin of 100 hectares comprises 40% wooded area, 45% grassed area and 15% paved area. Runoff coefficients for wooded, grassed and paved areas are 0.01, 0.2 and 0.95 respectively. The composite runoff coefficient for the drainage basin is (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill the answer with numerical value (upto two significant figures). For example, if your answer is 0.194 then fill 0.19
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Question 26 of 65
26. Question
2 pointsFind the ‘Lux’ at a distance of 5m from the light source. The light source has power of 40 Watts and Efficacy of 50 lm/W (2 marks)
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Hint
Fill with numerical values only (in whole number). For example, if your answer is 95.1 the fill 95
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Question 27 of 65
27. Question
2 pointsIn year 2001, a district with 5,000 manufacturing jobs had a 10% share of total manufacturing jobs within the state. In year 2011, the state recorded 20% drop in manufacturing jobs whereas, share of the district in total manufacturing jobs within the state increased to 10%. Additional manufacturing jobs created in the district between year 2001 and 2011 is __________ (2 marks)
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Hint
The correct answer is in four digits.
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Question 28 of 65
28. Question
2 pointsIn 2011, the population of a town was 5,00,000 and the number of housing units were 1,00,000. (2 marks)
Calculate the additional number of dwelling units (DU) required by 2031 so that there is no housing shortage. The assumptions are:
- 5% decadal increase in population
- New DU to be completed by 2021 is 10,000.
- Number of DU which will become non habitable by 2031 is 5,000
- Average household size is 5
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Hint
Correct answer is in four digits.
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Question 29 of 65
29. Question
2 pointsFor a project to complete, the Optimistic time is set to 186 days, the Most likely time is set to 69 days & the Pessimistic time is 30 weeks. What would be the expected time for completion? (2 marks)
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Hint
Correct answer is in three digits.
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Question 30 of 65
30. Question
1 pointsAs per the CPWD Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, 2014, Government of India, the minimum length of a straight ramp in metre to raise a wheelchair to the plinth level of 450 in m is………….. (1 mark)
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Hint
Correct answer is in 0.0 format. For example, 2.3 or 4.5
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Question 31 of 65
31. Question
2 pointsAs per National Building Code of India, 2005, the maximum number of occupants per unit exit width of a doorway is 60, where unit exit width is 500 mm. The maximum permissible occupants in a theatre having four number of 2.5m wide doors will be_________ (2 marks)
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Question 32 of 65
32. Question
2 pointsA proposed housing will have HIG, MIG and LIG units on a site measuring 60,750 sq.m. The buildable area of each category of units with respect to the total buildable area will be 30%, 50% and 20% respectively. The maxinnun allowable FAR is 2.5, ground coverage 45% and height 15 in. The maximum buildable area in sq.m of LIG units, considering a floor height of 3 in for all categories will be ______________ (2 marks)
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Hint
Correct answer is in format 12345
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Question 33 of 65
33. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following road elements are used to design speed limits at turns to ensure safety of a vehicle travelling? (1 mark)
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Question 34 of 65
34. Question
1 pointsFor GRIHA certification, minimum points required to obtain is 50. The points are obtained under many criteria. One criterion is site selection, another one is soil conservation. Similarly there are how many criteria under consideration. (1 mark)
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Question 35 of 65
35. Question
1 pointsGalvanizing is one of the most widely used to methods for protecting metal from corrosion. It involves applying a thin coating of___________ (1 mark)
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Question 36 of 65
36. Question
1 pointsArchiCAD, AutoDesk Revit, Digital Project Designer (CATIA) and Vector Works Architect are examples of __________ (1 mark)
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Question 37 of 65
37. Question
1 pointsThe Pritzker Architecture prize for the year 2017 has been awarded to…………… (1 mark)
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Question 38 of 65
38. Question
1 pointsThe three orders of architecture—the Doric, Ionic, and Corinthian—originated in …………… (1 mark)
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Question 39 of 65
39. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not true about the Cathedral of Notre Dame de Chartres? (1 mark)
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Question 40 of 65
40. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not true about ‘Cold joint’ (1 mark)
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Question 41 of 65
41. Question
1 pointsIt is an agreed-upon amount of money that parties to a contract promise to pay if one of them breaches the contract called (1 mark)
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Question 42 of 65
42. Question
1 pointsSelect the right option representing strategic components arranged in ascending order of specified minimum area under Smart City Mission of Government of India. (1 mark)
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Question 43 of 65
43. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following definition is correct (1 mark)
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Question 44 of 65
44. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is not correct (1 mark)
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Question 45 of 65
45. Question
1 pointsIn a plumbing system, two pipes are provided. One pipe collects the foul soil and lavatory wastes, where as the second pipe collects the waste water from kitchen, bath rooms, house washings, rain water etc. The soil pipes are directly connected to the drain, whereas the waste pipes are connected through the trapped gully. All the traps used in this system are highly ventilated. This system is called________ (1 mark)
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Question 46 of 65
46. Question
1 pointsIn Geographic Information System, about which of the following is not true about Albedo (1 mark)
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Question 47 of 65
47. Question
1 pointsWhat is ‘O’ in SWOT analysis (1 mark)
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Question 48 of 65
48. Question
2 pointsEDGE (Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiencies) is a certification program developed by IFC (International Finance Corporation), a member of the World Bank Group. Already in use in 125 emerging countries, EDGE works together with owners, architects, builders and banks to facilitate and stimulate the sustainable construction market. The target market share is the segment for which current certification systems (such as LEED, AQUA, etc.) are inappropriate and expensive. The differential of EDGE is that it is a simple, quick and affordable program to use. The EDGE consists of a software, a standard and a sustainability certification system in construction. The software is a cost-free web platform that evaluates the project against an appropriate baseline. To meet the “EDGE” standard, the project needs to show how much reduction in energy, water and materials consumption, relative to the baseline? (2 marks)
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Question 49 of 65
49. Question
1 pointsThe terms ‘node’ and ‘landmark’ can be related to (1 mark)
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Question 50 of 65
50. Question
1 pointsFlowers that are bright yellow in color, and growing from pendulous 20 to 40 cm long can be seen in ________ (1 mark)
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Question 51 of 65
51. Question
1 pointsThe grade-separated interchange suitable for 3-legged road intersection is ___________ (1 mark)
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Question 52 of 65
52. Question
2 pointsMatch the architectural movements in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Deconstruction 1. Joseph Paxton Q. Historicism 2. Kenzo Tange R. Bauhaus 3. Walter Gropius S. Art Nouveau 4. Victor Horta 5. Frank O. Gehry Correct
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Question 53 of 65
53. Question
2 pointsMatch the classical urban planning theories in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Advocacy planning 1. Beny and Horton Q. Sector Model 2. Homer Hoyt R. Multiple Nuclei Model 3. Paul Davidoff S. Factorial Ecology 4. Shevky and Bell 5. Harris and Ullman Correct
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Question 54 of 65
54. Question
2 pointsMatch the international events in Group-I with their directives in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Earth Summit, Rio de Janerio, 1902 1. Kyoto Protocol Q. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, New York 2. Agenda 21 R. UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015 3. Heritage conservation S. Habitat H, Istanbul, 1996 4. Agenda 2030 5. Housing for All Correct
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Question 55 of 65
55. Question
2 pointsAssociate the historic buildings in Group-I with their predominant materials in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India 1. Singe Rock Q. Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, India 2. Timber R. Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India 3. Terracotta S. Kailasa temple, Ellora 4. Sandstone and Laterite 5. Marble
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Question 56 of 65
56. Question
2 pointsMatch the terminologies in Group-I with their description in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Pruning 1. Cutting of trees Q. Felling 2. Removing broken branches from trees for better growth R. Hoeing 3. Tissues of plants are joined so as to continue their growth together S. Grafting 4. Indiscriminate cutting of branches to reduce the size of a tree 5. Loosening the ground to remove weeds Correct
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Question 57 of 65
57. Question
2 pointsMatch the development schemes by Government of India in Group-I with their objectives in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. SCM 1. Retrofitting of cities Q. AMRUT 2. Rural cluster development R. NRuM 3. Heritage city development S. HRIDAY 4. Urban mobility improvement 5. Urban rejuvenation Correct
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Question 58 of 65
58. Question
2 pointsMatch the planning techniques in Group-I with their salient features in Group-II. (2 marks)
Group II Group II P. Land pooling 1. Assigning specific task on a short time horizon Q. Action Plan 2. Assembling privately owned land parcels for development R. Land Ceiling 3. fixing maximum size of land holding that an individual/family can own S. Transfer of Development Rights 4. Assigning specific task on a long time horizon 5. Incentive based voluntary shifting of FAR of a plot to another plot Correct
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Question 59 of 65
59. Question
2 pointsMatch the land use classes in Group I with the use zones in Group II (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Transportation 1. Sports complex Q. Commercial 2. Heritage and conservation areas R. Public and Semi-public 3. Burial ground S. Recreational 4. BRT corridor 5. IT park Correct
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Question 60 of 65
60. Question
2 pointsMatch the parameters in Group I with their units in Group II
Group I Group II P. Traffic flow 1. Metre Q. Headway 2. Cycles/second R. Right of Way 3. Seconds S. Traffic signal cycle length 4. Second/Vehicle 5. PCU/hr Correct
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Question 61 of 65
61. Question
2 pointsMatch the equipment in Group-I with their applications in Group-II
Group I Group II P. PR 1. Air conditioning Q. FCU 2. Lighting R. OLED 3. Electricity S. MCB 4. Motion detection 5. Daylight sensing Correct
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Question 62 of 65
62. Question
2 pointsMatch the distinguished housing projects in Group -I with their architects in Group-II (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan 1. Walter Gropius Q. Bharat Bhavan 2. Moshe Safdie R. Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada 3. Ralph Erskine S. Byker Wall, New Castle, England 4. Charles Correa 5. Kisho Kurokawa Correct
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Question 63 of 65
63. Question
2 pointsAssociate the structural systems in Group I with the buildings in Group II. ( 2marks)
Group I Group II P. Folded plates 1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane Q. Shell 2. Tokyo Dome, Tokyo R. Tensegrity 3. Riverside Museum. Glasgow S. Pneumatic 4. MIT Auditorium, Boston 5. 30, St. Mary Axe, London Correct
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Question 64 of 65
64. Question
2 pointsMatch the instruments in Group I with the corresponding tests in Group II.
Group I Group II P. Pycnometer 1. Initial and final setting time Q. Brinell’s Apparatus 2. Strength of concrete R. Schmidt hammer 3. Surface hardness test S. Vicat’s Apparatus 4. Slump test 5. Apparent Specific gravity Correct
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Question 65 of 65
65. Question
2 pointsMatch the planning tasks in Group I with the tools of analysis in Group II. (2 marks)
Group I Group II P. Income distribution 1. Input-Output Analysis Q. Regional resource allocation 2. Hardy Cross Method R. Trip distribution 3. Lorenz curve S. Design of water distribution network 4. Gravity Model 5. Moving observer method Correct
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We believe an online practice test must encourage aspirants (upto 90% of test takers). We encourage you to remember the GATE SYLLABUS 2019 word by word. If you do not remember, you might not perform your best at GATE 2019.
Don’t work hard to fail. In case if you are not performing well. Just quit. Start something else you are stronger at. Sharpen. Be ahead of others easily!
kindly check question number 52. option 3
yes exactly i was gonna say the same
Then say who stopped u , fst gt coa nmbr nly aft dt ull authorised to say
This really helps
Q.23 whats the correct answer?
The correct answer is option 1. Length of column to least radius of gyration.
I am an enthusiastic individual completed my Bachelor’s in Architecture and now looking forward for further studies in the field of Architecture and Design. Want to score good in GATE ARCHITECTURE 2017 and aiming to get into IIT or JJ School of Architecture which stands among the best institutes in India for M.Arch.